P Post-test 1 (Aircraft Powerplant)

1. Which of the following component inspections is to be accomplished on a 100-hour inspection?

A. Check internal timing of magneto.

B. Check cylinder compression.

C. Check valve timing.

D. None of the above

B. Check cylinder compression

2. A fire detection system operates on the principle of a buildup of gas pressure within a tube proportional to temperature. Which of the following systems does this statement define?

A. Kidde continuous-loop system.

B. Lindberg continuous-element system.

C. Thermal switch system.

D. None of the above

B. Lindberg continuous-element system

3. Which condition would be the least likely to be caused by failed or failing engine bearings?

A. Excessive oil consumption.

B. High oil temperatures.

C. Low oil temperatures.

D. All of the above

C. Low oil temperatures

4. Which type valve prevents oil from entering the main accessory case when the engine is not running?

A. Bypass.

B. Relief.

C. Check.

D. All of the above

C. Check

5. What is the purpose of the rate-of-change controller in a turbocharger system?

A. Limits the maximum manifold pressure that can be produced by the turbocharger at full throttle conditions.

B. Controls the rate at which the turbocharger discharge pressure will increase.

C. Controls the position of the waste gate after the aircraft has reached its critical altitude.

D. None of the above

B. Controls the rate at which the turbocharger discharge pressure will increase

6. A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic starters that is used to prevent the starter from reaching burst speed if inlet air does not terminate on schedule is the

A. drive shaft shear point.

B. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and stabilizes turbine wheel speed.

C. spring coupling release.

D. None of the above

B. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and stabilizes turbine wheel speed

7. Which type of fuel control is used on most of today's turbine engines?

A. Electromechanical.

B. Mechanical.

C. Hydromechanical or electronic.

D. All of the above

C. Hydromechanical or electronic

8. Engines using cold stream, or both cold and hot stream reversing include

A. high bypass turbofans.

B. turbojets.

C. turbojets with afterburner.

D. None of the above

A. high bypass turbofans

9. Determine which portion of the AD is applicable for Model O-690 series engine, serial No. 5863-40 with 283 hours' time in service.

A. (B), (1).

B. (A).

C. (B), (2).

D. All of the above

A. (B), (1)

10. The pumping capacity of the scavenger pump in a dry sump aircraft engine's lubrication system

A. is greater than the capacity of the oil supply pump.

B. is less than the capacity of the oil supply pump.

C. is usually equal to the capacity of the oil supply pump in order to maintain constant oiling conditions.

D. All of the above

A. is greater than the capacity of the oil supply pump

11. Fuel lines are kept away from sources of heat, and sharp bends and steep rises are avoided to reduce the possibility of

A. liquid lock.

B. vapor lock.

C. positive lock.

D. None of the above

B. vapor lock

12. Carburetor icing may be eliminated by which of the following methods?

A. Alcohol spray and electrically heated induction duct.

B. Ethylene glycol spray and heated induction air.

C. Alcohol spray and heated induction air.

D. All of the above

C. Alcohol spray and heated induction air

13. As an aid to cold-weather starting, the oil dilution system thins the oil with

A. kerosene.

B. alcohol.

C. gasoline.

D. All of the above

C. gasoline

14. Which of the following statements regarding magneto switch circuits is NOT true?

A. In the BOTH position, the right and left magneto circuits are grounded.

B. In the OFF position, neither the right nor left magneto circuits are open.

C. In the RIGHT position, the right magneto circuit is open and the left magneto circuit is grounded.

D. All of the above

A. In the BOTH position, the right and left magneto circuits are grounded

15. Inspection of pneumatic starters by maintenance technicians usually includes checking the

A. oil level and magnetic drain plug condition.

B. stator and rotor blades for FOD.

C. rotor alignment.

D. None of the above

A. oil level and magnetic drain plug condition

16. The vortex dissipators installed on some turbine-powered aircraft to prevent engine FOD utilize

A. variable inlet guide vanes (IGV) and/or variable first stage fan blades.

B. variable geometry inlet ducts.

C. a stream of engine bleed air blown toward the ground ahead of the engine.

D. All of the above

C. a stream of engine bleed air blown toward the ground ahead of the engine

17. What would be the result if a magneto breaker point mainspring did not have sufficient tension?

A. The points will stick.

B. The points will not open to the specified gap.

C. The points will float or bounce.

D. None of the above

C. The points will float or bounce

18. If an engine operates with a low oil pressure and a high oil temperature, the problem may be caused by a

A. leaking oil dilution valve.

B. sheared oil pump shaft.

C. clogged oil cooler annular jacket.

D. None of the above

A. leaking oil dilution valve

19. The valve clearance of an engine using hydraulic lifters, when the lifters are completely flat, or empty, should not exceed

A. 0.00 inch.

B. a specified amount above zero.

C. a specified amount below zero.

D. All of the above

B. a specified amount above zero

20. As an aircraft engine's speed is increased, the voltage induced in the primary coil of the magneto

A. remains constant.

B. increases.

C. varies with the setting of the voltage regulator.

D. None of the above

B. increases

21. What is the principle of operation of the continuous-loop fire detector system sensor?

A. Fuse material which melts at high temperatures.

B. Core resistance material which prevents current flow at normal temperatures.

C. A bimetallic thermoswitch which closes when heated to a high temperature.

D. None of the above

B. Core resistance material which prevents current flow at normal temperatures

22. A term commonly used when two or more electrical terminals are installed on a single lug of a terminal strip is

A. strapping.

B. stepping.

C. stacking.

D. All of the above

C. stacking

23. The economizer system in a float-type carburetor

A. keeps the fuel/air ratio constant.

B. functions only at cruise and idle speeds.

C. increases the fuel/air ratio at high power settings.

D. None of the above

C. increases the fuel/air ratio at high power settings

24. The highest heat-to-metal contact in a jet engine is the

A. burner cans.

B. turbine inlet guide vanes.

C. turbine blades.

D. None of the above

B. turbine inlet guide vanes

25. The fuel level within the float chamber of a properly adjusted float-type carburetor will be

A. slightly higher than the discharge nozzle outlet.

B. slightly lower than the discharge nozzle outlet.

C. at the same level as the discharge nozzle outlet.

D. None of the above

B. slightly lower than the discharge nozzle outlet

26. What are the positions of the pressurization valve and the dump valve in a jet engine fuel system when the engine is shut down?

A. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve open.

B. Pressurization valve open, dump valve open.

C. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve closed.

D. All of the above

A. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve open

27. Boost pumps in a fuel system

A. operate during takeoff only.

B. are primarily used for fuel transfer.

C. provide a positive flow of fuel to the engine pump.

D. All of the above

C. provide a positive flow of fuel to the engine pump

28. (1) Welding and straightening of turbine engine rotating airfoils does not require special equipment. (2) Welding and straightening of turbine engine rotating airfoils is commonly recommended by the manufacturer. Regarding the above statements,

A. only No. 1 is true.

B. only No. 2 is true.

C. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

D. None of the above

C. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true

29. Which of the following statements concerning the installation of a new fixed-pitch wood propeller is true?

A. If a separate metal hub is used, final track should be accomplished prior to installing the hub in the propeller.

B. NAS close-tolerance bolts should be used to install the propeller.

C. Inspect the bolts for tightness after the first flight and again after the first 25 hours of flying.

D. All of the above

C. Inspect the bolts for tightness after the first flight and again after the first 25 hours of flying

30. Maximum taper contact between crankshaft and propeller hub is determined by using

A. bearing blue color transfer.

B. a micrometer.

C. a surface gauge.

D. All of the above

A. bearing blue color transfer

31. What is the smallest terminal stud allowed for aircraft electrical power systems?

A. No. 6.

B. No. 8.

C. No. 10.

D. None of the above

C. No. 10

32. The indication on a thermocouple-type cylinder head temperature indicator is produced by

A. resistance changes in two dissimilar metals.

B. a difference in the voltage between two dissimilar metals.

C. a current generated by the temperature difference between dissimilar metal hot and cold junctions.

D. All of the above

C. a current generated by the temperature difference between dissimilar metal hot and cold junctions

33. What corrective action should be taken when a carburetor is found to be leaking fuel from the discharge nozzle?

A. Replace the needle valve and seat.

B. Raise the float level.

C. Turn the fuel off each time the aircraft is parked.

D. All of the above

A. Replace the needle valve and seat

34. Engine crankshaft runout is usually checked

1. during engine overhaul.

2. during annual inspection.

3. after a 'prop strike' or sudden engine stoppage.

4. during 100-hour inspection.

A. 1, 3, and 4.

B. 1 and 3.

C. 1, 2 and 3.

D. All of the above

B. 1 and 3

35. A characteristic of dyna-focal engine mounts as applied to aircraft reciprocating engines is that the

A. shock mounts eliminate the torsional flexing of the powerplant.

B. engine attaches to the shock mounts at the engine's center of gravity.

C. shock mounts point toward the engine's center of gravity.

D. None of the above

C. shock mounts point toward the engine's center of gravity

36. The fuel metering force of a conventional float-type carburetor in its normal operating range is the difference between the pressure acting on the discharge nozzle located within the venturi and the pressure

A. acting on the fuel in the float chamber.

B. of the fuel as it enters the carburetor.

C. of the air as it enters the venturi (impact pressure).

D. All of the above

A. acting on the fuel in the float chamber

37. What is the primary purpose of the oil-to-fuel heat exchanger?

A. Cool the fuel.

B. Cool the oil.

C. De-aerate the oil.

D. All of the above

B. Cool the oil

38. Which of the following would indicate a general weak-engine condition when operated with a fixed-pitch propeller or test club?

A. Lower than normal static RPM, full throttle operation.

B. Manifold pressure lower at idle RPM than at static RPM.

C. Lower than normal manifold pressure for any given RPM.

D. All of the above

A. Lower than normal static RPM, full throttle operation

39. Which of the following defects would likely cause a hot spot on a reciprocating engine cylinder?

A. Too much cooling fin area broken off.

B. A cracked cylinder baffle.

C. Cowling air seal leakage.

D. All of the above

A. Too much cooling fin area broken off.

40. One of the advantages of inspecting an aluminum propeller utilizing dye-penetrant inspection procedure is that

A. defects just below the surface are indicated.

B. it shows whether visible lines and other marks are actually cracks rather than scratches.

C. it indicates overspeed condition.

D. None of the above

B. it shows whether visible lines and other marks are actually cracks rather than scratches

41. The electrical circuit from the spark plug back to the magneto is completed by grounding through the

A. engine structure.

B. P-lead.

C. cockpit switch.

D. All of the above

A. engine structure

42. A complete break in the line between the manifold pressure gauge and the induction system will be indicated by the gauge registering

A. prevailing atmospheric pressure.

B. zero.

C. lower than normal for conditions prevailing.

D. All of the above

A. prevailing atmospheric pressure

43. On which strokes are both valves on a four-stroke cycle reciprocating aircraft engine open?

A. Power and exhaust.

B. Intake and compression.

C. Exhaust and intake.

D. All of the above

C. Exhaust and intake

44. Reciprocating engines used in helicopters are cooled by

A. the downdraft from the main rotor.

B. a fan mounted on the engine.

C. blast tubes on either side of the engine mount.

D. All of the above

B. a fan mounted on the engine

45. (1) Serviceability limits for turbine blades are much more stringent than are those for turbine nozzle vanes. (2) A limited number of small nicks and dents can usually be permitted in any area of a turbine blade. Regarding the above statements,

A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

B. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

C. only No. 1 is true.

D. All of the above

C. only No. 1 is true

46. During routine inspection of a reciprocating engine, a deposit of small, bright, metallic particles which do not cling to the magnetic drain plug is discovered in the oil sump and on the surface of the oil filter. This condition

A. may be a result of abnormal plain type bearing wear and is cause for further investigation.

B. is probably a result of ring and cylinder wall wear and is cause for engine removal and/or overhaul.

C. is normal in engines utilizing plain type bearings and aluminum pistons and is not cause for alarm.

D. None of the above

A. may be a result of abnormal plain type bearing wear and is cause for further investigation

47. Turbine nozzle diaphragms located on the upstream side of each turbine wheel, are used in the gas turbine engine to

A. decrease the velocity of the heated gases flowing past this point.

B. direct the flow of gases parallel to the vertical line of the turbine blades.

C. increase the velocity of the heated gases flowing past this point.

D. All of the above

C. increase the velocity of the heated gases flowing past this point

48. When in operation, the speed of an APU

A. is controlled by a cockpit power lever.

B. remains at idle and automatically accelerates to rated speed when placed under load.

C. remains at or near rated speed regardless of the load condition.

D. None of the above

C. remains at or near rated speed regardless of the load condition

49. The active clearance control (ACC) portion of an EEC system aids turbine engine efficiency by

A. adjusting stator vane position according to operating conditions and power requirements.

B. ensuring turbine blade to engine case clearances are kept to a minimum by controlling case temperatures.

C. automatically adjusting engine speed to maintain a desired EPR.

D. None of the above

B. ensuring turbine blade to engine case clearances are kept to a minimum by controlling case temperatures

50. Compression ratio is the ratio between the

A. piston travel on the compression stroke and on the intake stroke.

B. combustion chamber pressure on the combustion stroke and on the exhaust stroke.

C. cylinder volume with piston at bottom dead center and at top dead center.

D. None of the above

C. cylinder volume with piston at bottom dead center and at top dead center