POC quick midterm review

What is the purpose of the medical-history questionnaire?

To gather information about past and present conditions, diseases, medications, and health risks that may affect dental care.

How often is a new medical history completed in the course protocol?

Every two years; update the existing medical history at every visit.

Whose signatures are required on the course medical history form?

Patient, faculty, and student.

What steps are used to evaluate a completed medical history?

Read thoroughly, research conditions, formulate questions, interview to clarify, research prescription/OTC medications, and seek physician consultation if appropriate.

Pyrexia — what does it mean?

Fever. The lecture text defines it as temperature over 99.5 °F; the lecture fever table uses 100.4 °F.

What is hyperthermia?

Temperature over 104 °F.

What is hypothermia?

Temperature below 96 °F.

What is the course normal adolescent-to-adult pulse range?

60–100 beats per minute.

What is the course pulse range for children aged 2–6?

75–120 beats per minute.

What is the course pulse range for children aged 6–12?

75–110 beats per minute.

What is tachycardia?

Fast heartbeat; the course cutoff is over 100 bpm.

What is bradycardia?

Slow heartbeat; the course cutoff is below 50 bpm.

What is the course adult respiration range?

14–20 respirations per minute (rpm).

What is tachypnea?

Rapid breathing; over 20 rpm in an adult.

What is bradypnea?

Slow breathing; below 12 rpm in an adult.

What is blood pressure?

Pressure exerted by circulating blood against arterial vessel walls.

What are Korotkoff sounds?

Sounds heard as BP cuff pressure is released; first tapping marks systolic BP and disappearance marks diastolic BP.

How wide should a BP cuff bladder be relative to the arm?

About 40% of arm circumference.

How long should a BP cuff bladder be relative to the arm?

About 80% of the arm when wrapped,.

Where is the BP cuff positioned?

About 1 inch above the antecubital fossa.

During auscultatory BP measurement, how far above estimated systolic should the cuff be reinflated?

20–30 mmHg higher than the estimated systolic pressure.

How quickly is cuff pressure released in the course procedure?

About 2 mmHg at a time.

What is the normal blood pressure category?

Systolic below 120 AND diastolic below 80 mmHg.

What is elevated blood pressure?

Systolic 120–129 AND diastolic below 80 mmHg.

What is stage 1 hypertension?

Systolic 130–139 OR diastolic 80–89 mmHg.

What is stage 2 hypertension?

Systolic 140 or higher OR diastolic 90 or higher mmHg.

What is the BP category for 128/76 mmHg?

Elevated blood pressure (systolic 120–129 and diastolic below 80).

What is the BP category for 135/78 mmHg?

Stage 1 hypertension (systolic 130–139).

What is the BP category for 118/92 mmHg?

Stage 2 hypertension (diastolic 90 or higher).

What does ASA stand for in ASA physical status?

American Society of Anesthesiologists.

What is ASA physical status classification used for?

Classifying systemic health and identifying possible dental treatment risks/modifications.

What is ASA I?

Normal healthy patient.

What is ASA II?

Patient with mild systemic disease.

What is ASA III?

Patient with severe systemic disease.

What is ASA IV?

Patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life.

What is ASA V?

Moribund patient not expected to survive without the operation.

What is ASA VI?

Declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes.

What are lecture examples of ASA I?

Healthy patient; no systemic disease and usually no treatment modifications.

ASA II — common examples?

Controlled diabetes, controlled asthma, pregnancy, and significant dental anxiety.

What are lecture examples of ASA III?

Severe disease with substantial limitations, such as poorly controlled diabetes/hypertension or stable significant cardiovascular disease.

What are lecture examples of ASA IV?

Unstable angina, recent MI/stroke, or other severe disease posing a constant threat to life.

What is the key difference between ASA II and ASA III?

ASA II means mild systemic disease; ASA III means severe systemic disease with substantive functional limitations.

What is the key difference between ASA III and ASA IV?

ASA IV disease poses a constant threat to life; ASA III is severe without that continuous threat.

What is a medical consultation?

Request for additional medical information or advice about the implications of dental treatment.

What should be done after a telephone medical consultation?

Follow up in writing, according to the course documentation guidance.

Which medical history item can prompt assessment of HbA1c and blood glucose?

Diabetes.

If GM is 2 mm apical to CEJ, what number is entered?

+2 mm.

What does CAL stand for?

Clinical attachment level.

What fixed reference point is used for CAL?

Cementoenamel junction (CEJ).

What is the course formula for CAL?

CAL = PD + signed GM (add recession as positive; enlargement is negative).

Calculate CAL: PD 6 mm and GM 0 mm.

6 mm.

Calculate CAL: PD 4 mm and recession +2 mm.

6 mm.

Calculate CAL: PD 9 mm and enlargement −3 mm.

6 mm.

Calculate CAL: PD 5 mm and recession +3 mm.

8 mm.

Calculate CAL: PD 7 mm and enlargement −2 mm.

5 mm.

Why is CAL not interchangeable with probing depth?

PD depends on gingival-margin position, while CAL measures attachment relative to the fixed CEJ.

What is tooth mobility class 1?

Up to 1 mm of horizontal facial–lingual movement.

What is tooth mobility class 2?

More than 1 mm but less than 2 mm of horizontal facial–lingual movement.

What is tooth mobility class 3?

More than 2 mm horizontal movement OR vertical mobility.

A tooth moving vertically has what mobility class?

Class 3.

What is a furcation?

The place where roots of a multirooted tooth diverge/separate.

What instrument evaluates furcation involvement?

Nabers probe.

What is class I furcation involvement?

Probe feels the entrance but cannot enter: 'feel it.'

What is class II furcation involvement?

Probe enters more than 1 mm but does not pass through: 'in it.'

What is class III furcation involvement?

Probe passes completely through the furcation: 'through it.'

What is class IV furcation involvement?

Class III (through-and-through) with furcation entrance clinically visible because of recession: 'see it.'

Which furcation grade is 'feel it'?

Class I.

Which furcation grade is 'in it'?

Class II.

Which furcation grade is 'through it'?

Class III.

Which furcation grade is 'see it'?

Class IV.

What is the mucogingival junction?

The border between attached gingiva and alveolar mucosa.

What is the difference between CAL and furcation assessment?

CAL quantifies attachment level from CEJ; furcation assessment describes interradicular attachment/bone involvement.

What is scaling?

Removal of calculus deposits from teeth.

What are the main powered scaler categories?

Sonic and ultrasonic; ultrasonic includes magnetostrictive and piezoelectric.

What powers a sonic scaler?

Compressed air.

What is frequency for powered instruments?

Number of vibrations/cycles per second; measured in CPS.

What is amplitude for powered instruments?

Distance the working end travels in one cycle (stroke length).

Which powered-instrument factor is fixed for a given scaler type?

Frequency is fixed; not adjusted by the clinician.

What is the course frequency range for sonic scaling?

2,500–8,000 cycles per second.

What is the course frequency range for magnetostrictive scaling?

18,000–45,000 cycles per second.

What is the course frequency range for piezoelectric scaling?

25,000–50,000 cycles per second.

What type of tip motion does a sonic scaler use?

Elliptical motion.

What type of tip motion does a magnetostrictive scaler use?

Elliptical motion.

What type of tip motion does a piezoelectric scaler use?

Linear motion.

Which sonic scaler tip surfaces are active?

All sides.

Which magnetostrictive scaler tip surfaces are active?

All sides.

Which piezoelectric scaler tip surfaces are active?

Primarily lateral sides.

What is mechanical action in powered calculus removal?

Vibrating working end physically disrupts or fractures deposits.

What is a major advantage of powered scaling?

Efficient deposit/biofilm disruption with lavage and reduced repetitive hand effort for some tasks.

How much efficiency can be lost with 1 mm of tip wear?

Approximately 25%.

How much efficiency can be lost with 2 mm of tip wear?

Approximately 50%.

What tip-to-tooth working angle is recommended?

0–15 degrees.

How much lateral pressure is recommended during ultrasonic scaling?

Feather-light pressure.

What power/tip approach suits heavier calculus?

An insert designed for moderate-to-heavy calculus with an appropriate higher power setting.

What kind of medical conditions warrant precaution or avoidance of aerosol-generating powered scaling?

Aerosol-transmissible infections, certain respiratory risks, infection vulnerability, and relevant cardiac device concerns.

Why should a powered scaler never stay stationary against one spot?

Localized heat and surface/tissue injury can occur.

Powered scaling — methods to reduce aerosols?

Appropriate PPE, high-volume evacuation (HVE), aerosol-control equipment, and preprocedural rinse.

What is the hard deposit called?

Calculus (tartar), which is mineralized biofilm.

What is stage 1 of biofilm formation?

Initial attachment of bacteria to the acquired pellicle.

What is stage 2 of biofilm formation?

Bacterial multiplication and colonization/coaggregation.