Advanced Restorative II Midterm

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Last updated 2:34 PM on 10/2/26
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60 Terms

1
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To make a central incisor appear more youthful, one should:

A. incorporate mammelons to match adjacent teeth.

B. make it smaller than normal.

C. make it a darker than normal shade.

D. make the incisal edge very smooth and straight.

A

2
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In dentistry, the means to make the final judgment of whether the selected shade of a crown is acceptable, is the:

A. colorimeter.

B. human eye.

C. spectrophotometer.

D. color wheel.

B

3
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When providing shade instructions to the lab for fabrication of a porcelain fused to metal crown, it is best to give the lab:

A. one shade from the Vita shade guide to minimize confusion.

B. specific instructions on what temperature to set the furnace when firing porcelain.

C. a cervical shade, body shade and incisal shade.

D. a lecture.

C

4
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Which portion of the natural tooth tends to be the highest in chroma and lowest in value?

A. cervical third

B. middle third

C. incisal edge

D. incisal third

A

5
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In general, teeth in males are considered more:

A. rounded.

B. angular (square definite line angles)

C. concave.

D. convex.

B

6
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When using the "golden proportion" to develop an esthetic smile, the most important factor is:

A. the actual mesiodistal width of the teeth.

B. the visible (apparent) mesiodistal width of the teeth.

C. only the length of the teeth.

D. only the length of the teeth below the upper lip.

B

7
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The three components of color as described by Dr. Cochran include:

A. metamerism, opalescence, and sheen.

B. shine, texture, and ambience.

C. hue, chroma, and value.

D. polish, metamerism, and shimmer.

C

8
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What is considered the fourth dimension of color when discussing the natural dentition?

A. saturation

B. value

C. hue

D. chroma

E. translucency

E

9
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If an exact match to the tooth cannot be achieved with the composite resin you are using, the best alternative is to select the closest match of:

A. lower value

B. higher value

C. lighter shade

D. increased chroma

A

10
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Which of the following is true concerning resin tints for resin composites?

A. They wear as well as the bulk (highly filled) composites

B. They last just as long on the surface as they do when used beneath translucent resin layers

C. surface use will result in eventual wearing away

D. They are highly filled resin composites

C

11
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As taught at IUSD, which of the following is the FIRST step in preparing an acceptably contoured tooth for a metal ceramic crown?

A. Reduce the incisal 2 mm.

B. Make the interproximal slices.

C. Do your lingual reduction.

D. Impress the tooth with a material to use as a mold for the provisional.

D

12
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Which of the following does an external putty matrix provide?

A. physiologic axial contours adjacent to the gingiva.

B. occlusion with the opposing teeth.

C. marginal fit and proximal contact.

D. all the above.

E. none of the above

D

13
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When doing a diastema closure on anterior teeth with porcelain veneers, which of the following is true?

A. terminate interproximal margins just facial to the contact area.

B. do a diagnostic wax-up before preparing teeth

C. do a diagnostic wax-up after preparing teeth

D. close the space by widening only one tooth on one side of the space

B

14
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In order to obtain the best possible shade match with resin composites, the best shade-guide to use is which of the following:

A. Lumin classic shade guide

B. Lumin bleaching shade guide

C. plastic shade guides provided by the composite manufacturer

D. actual cured resin composite tabs

D

15
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A well-made provisional supplies/maintains which of the following?

A. occlusal contacts

B. proximal contacts

C. healthy gingiva

D. all of the above

E. none of the above

D

16
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What is the primary reason for covering all cut vital dentin with a temporary crown?

A. to prevent caries

B. to increase retention

C. to improve esthetics

D. to reduce sensitivity

D

17
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When making a subgingival provisional restoration, which will contribute to more gingival inflammation?

A. an even margin

B. an overhanging margin

C. an undercontoured margin

B

18
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You remove a temporary crown with subgingival margins and find small fingerlike projections of granulation tissue overlying the margins, what is the most likely cause?

A. the temporary was over-extended cervically into the sulcus

B. the temporary was over-extended facially

C. the temporary had open margins

D. the patient has an allergy to acrylic

C

19
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Which of the following would be best indicated to make a provisional for tooth number 8?

A. Chrome steel crown.

B. aluminum shell crown.

C. a stock plastic crown.

D. custom acrylic

D

20
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Custom resin provisionals are used in order to:

A. Match unusual morphology

B. Make provisional acrylic fixed partial dentures

C. Make diagnostic provisionals

D. all the above

D

21
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What materials are available to make molds for fabricating custom acrylic provisionals?

A. alginate

B. silicone putty

C. vacuum formed plastic stent

D. a, b and c

E. none of the above

D

22
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Each of the following is a chemical (self)-curing provisional material, except:

A. Snap

B. Triad

C. Jet

D. Pro-Temp

B

23
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When making a custom acrylic (Snap) provisional, which of the following is most likely to occur if the material is allowed to set completely?

A. a perfectly fitting provisional.

B. a slightly enlarged provisional.

C. a material that is in a "rubbery" condition.

D. a provisional that is "locked" interproximally.

D

24
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When choosing an aluminum shell stock crown, which dimension should be the closest to the correct size before modification?

A. mesio-distal

B. inciso-cervical

C. facio-lingual

A

25
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When choosing a polycarbonate stock crown, which dimension should be closest to the correct size before modification?

A. mesio-distal

B. inciso-cervical

C. facio-lingual

A

26
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According to Dr. Carlson, when doing anterior veneers, the best

provisional is:

A. no provisional when possible

B. Triad

C. Fermit

D. Pro-Temp

E. Acid etched bonded composite veneers

A

27
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Which of the following is classified as an elastic impression material?

A. plaster

B. impression compound

C. beeswax or aluwax

D. polyvinyl siloxane

D

28
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What properties make polysulfide a preferred impression material for a partial denture impression when compared to addition silicone or polyether?

A. Polysulfide is less rigid

B. Polysulfide distorts less when being removed from undercuts

C. Polysulfide is more opaque which aids in assessing the impression of the edentulous areas.

D. a, b, and c

E. a and c only

E

29
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Which of the following types of impression materials is least wettable when filling it with dental stone?

A. polyether

B. polysulfide

C. silicone

C

30
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The quickest dimensional change in impressions is apt to occur with:

A. Polyether

B. Addition silicone

C. Polysulfide

D. Condensation silicone

D

31
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If impressions are sent to the lab to be poured, which of the following would be the impression material of choice?

A. reversible hydrocolloid

B. alginate

C. polysulfide

D. Polyvinyl siloxane

D

32
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Which of the following types of impression material is most flexible, allowing removal from deep undercuts without tearing?

A. polyether

B. polysulfide

C. addition silicone

C

33
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Which of the following types of impression material is most prone to permanent deformation when removed from deep undercuts?

A. polyether

B. polysulfide

C. addition silicone

C, but his slide suggests B would be the correct answer

34
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A single quadrant impression is most useful:

A. to develop a working model

B. for a die when margins on a master impression are questionable

C. as the sole impression for a complete crown

D. with a putty-wash technique

B

35
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A check bite impression should NOT be used for:

A. post and core

B. a 3/4 crown on a third molar

C. a metal ceramic premolar

D. a complete crown on a mandibular first molar (with second molar present)

B

36
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Contra-indication for using a Check-Bite impression tray include all except:

A. Patient with mandibular tori

B. Single crown impression on a premolar in normal occlusion

C. Third molars in place with no space for cross-bar

D. A complete crown preparation on the most distal tooth in an arch

B

37
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Advantages of a custom tray include all EXCEPT the following:

A. Patient comfort

B. Cost

C. Consistency in polymerization dimensional change

D. Less waste of impression material

B

38
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At IUSD, we teach that custom-fit trays should be used:

A. for all impressions.

B. when impressing the most distal tooth in the arch.

C. for anterior teeth only.

D. only when we are out of stock trays.

B

39
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Which of the following impression materials should be used in a wet environment?

A. polyether

B. polysulfide

C. polyvinyl siloxane

D. all of the above

E. none of the above

E

40
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What does a shiny area on the margin of an impression indicate?

A. a very smooth chamfer

B. sclerotic dentin

C. moisture contamination

C

41
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If one were to use the double-pour technique, which of the following would be the impression material of choice?

A. alginate

B. rubber base

C. Impression plaster

D. Polyvinyl siloxane

D

42
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Which of the following is not an advantage of the multiple pour technique for making dies?

A. it is an easy technique to teach and to learn

B. the casting must be made to fit more than one die/model accurately

C. it is inexpensive

D. the solid master model is accurate for fixed partial dentures and proximal contacts

B

43
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The impression/die system that we use primarily at IUSD is called:

A. The Pindex System

B. The die-lock tray system

C. The double-pour technique.

D. The compound tray technique.

C

44
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T/F: The Di-Lok and Pindex die systems are removable die systems

True

45
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T/F: Direct gold is recommended for repairing a large erosion lesion at the margin of a casting.

False

46
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T/F: With experience, direct gold can be used to restore Class I, II, III, V but not Class VI preparations.

False

47
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T/F: One clinical advantage of a direct gold restoration is that it is highly resistant to corrosion.

True

48
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T/F: A gold inlay offers higher strength values when compared to amalgam or resin restorations of equal size.

True

49
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T/F: The most logical burs for forming the walls and outline for a posterior dental inlay are the #245 and #330.

False

*use tapered fissure (#700 or 557)

50
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T/F: An inlay offers the advantage of an accurate and polished proximal contact.

True

51
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T/F: The interproximal gingival margin of a gold inlay will have the same design as expected for dental amalgam restoration in the same location.

False

52
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T/F: Gold inlays are prepared with 90° enamel cavosurface margins

False

53
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T/F: When restoring a molar with an MOD onlay the occlusal clearance in areas where function is expected is 1.0mm.

True

54
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T/F: A partial veneer gold crown (i.e. ¾ gold crown) is characterized by proximal and lingual chamfers, and proximal grooves to provide resistance to displacement.

True

55
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T/F: Direct gold restorations require internal retention form in the preparation.

True

56
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T/F: If a preparation for direct gold is deeper than ideal, a base material such as Dycal should be used to return the pulpal wall of the preparation to the proper depth.

False

57
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T/F: EZ Gold™ is a form of direct gold that is made by coating a piece of gold foil in wax, then rolling it into a little ball by hand.

False

58
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T/F: A Bunson burner is used to degas pellets of direct gold.

False

59
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T/F: If you choose to provide direct gold for selected cases in your private practice, the amount of money you can earn per hour is closer

to that of a cast restoration than that of a direct restoration.

True

60
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T/F: When restoring a Class I preparation with direct gold, it should be overfilled using a technique the same as that used when placing an amalgam.

False