Ontario Fuel Technician Safety & Equipment

1. According to the workplace safety and insurance board act, which of the following statements is part of the workers obligation in all cases of injury and or disease.

A) obtain first aid promptly

B) notify the employer of any injury within eight hours

C) notify the employer of the possible onset of a work related disease/condition within two working days

D) find a doctor or qualified practitioner who will give a second opinion concerning the injury.

B) notify the employer of any injury within eight hours

Which of the following statements is true?

A) workers do not have to wear hard hats on a job site, even if instructed not to do so by employer

B) workers must wear the protective clothing that the employer instructs them to wear on the job site

C) workers do not have to be aware of the contents of the occupational health and safety act.

D) unnecessary running or rough or boisterous conduct on job sites is NOT prohibited by the occupational health and safety actoisterous conduct on job sites is NOT prohibited by the occupational health and safety act

B) workers must wear the protective clothing that the employer instructs them to wear on the job site.

3. Which of the following is true:

A) when lifting, it is best to use your back muscles as they are the strongest

B) when lifting, it is best to lift by bending your knees and using your leg muscles

C) when lifting a heavy load that is too heavy, lift and carry it short distances at a time.

D) none of these statements apply

B) when lifting, it is best to lift by bending your knees and using your leg muscles

Which of the following lists best describes the key safety categories which should be considered by a fuel technician in Ontario:

A) personal safety, site, tools, equipment, safety of others, OHSA, deadlines

B) personal safety, tools, equipment, safety of others, deadlines, Ontario fuel code requirements

C) personal safety, tools, equipment, safety of others, site, OHSA, Ontario fuel codes

D) personal safety, tools, equipment, safety of others, Ontario fuel codes

C) personal safety, tools, equipment, safety of others, site, OHSA, Ontario fuel codes

5. How often do portable fire extinguishers have to be inspected?

A) every month

B) every six months

C) every nine months

D) every twelve months

D) every twelve months

6. What does OSHA stand for?

A) Ontario health and standards act

B) Ontario health and safety act

C) occupational health and safety act

D) occupational health and standard ac

C) occupational health and safety act

7. Technicians use MSDS sheets to:

A) be aware of flammable,corrosive, or explosive substances

B) know what materials are available for the technicians use

C) know the best brand of product to purchase

D) be aware of the best source of lubricants for machinery on site

A) be aware of flammable,corrosive, or explosive substances

8.Which of the following phrases is true:

A). the natural gas and propane installation code requires a technician to report a hazardous installation within three working days of completion

B) the OSHA requires that hazards be reported within 72 hours

C) the industry does not demand that hazards be reported for correction

D) the hazard is the responsibility of the person who is aware of it

D) the hazard is the responsibility of the person who is aware of it

9. Why should garbage and debris be removed from a job site:

A) to present a neat appearance

B) to prevent possible slips, trips or falls

C) to reduce the possibility of tool loss in debris

D) to reduce the likelihood of rodents on the job site

B) to prevent possible slips, trips or falls

10. What should a fuel technician do when a new piece of equipment is introduced for use:

A) carefully examine the equipment and determine how to use it properly

B) ask the appliance owner to help determine how to use it properly

C) get a copy of the user's manual and read it before using the equipment

D) refuse to work with new equipment until someone else has used it.

C) get a copy of the user's manual and read it before using the equipment

11. Copper wire should be skinned with:

A) knife

B) pliers

C) side cutters

D) a wire stripper

D) a wire stripper

12. What is the volume of a room measuring 16'X12'X7'

A) 84 square feet

B) 192 cubic feet

C) 1344 cubic feet

D) 16, 128 square feet

C) 1344 cubic feet

13. What is purpose of a drill gauge:

A) to measure the diameter of a drill bit

B) to measure the diameter of a drill

C) to measure the length of a drill

D) to measure the length of a drill bit

A) to measure the diameter of a drill bit

14.The fastener used to connect a drain hose to a fan coil unit is:

A) a gear clamp

B) copper bailing wire

C) electrical tape

D) grappler bar

A) a gear clamp

15. What is the area of rectangular air supply opening measuring 12"x10"

A) 1.0 square feet

B) 1.2 cubic feet

C) 100 cubic inches

D) 120 square inches

D) 120 square inches

16. How should an electric drill be disconnected:

A) by pulling on the drills cord

B) by pulling the plug at the outlet

C) by using a pair of insulated channel lock pliers

D) with the chuck key.

B) by pulling the plug at the outlet

17. A foot has inches ____and a meter has____centinmeters.

A) 12 inches,100 centimeters

B) 10 inches, l00 centimeters

C) 100 inches,12 centimeters

D) l0 inches, l00 centimeter

A) 12 inches,100 centimeters

18. If a natural gas flame is adjusted to produce more than 11.9% carbon dioxide:

A) carbon monoxide may be produced

B) combustion efficiency will fluctuate

C) the flame will be very noisy and will lift off of the burner

D) There will be little overall effect.

A) carbon monoxide may be produced

19. Which substance is inert and passes through the combustion zone absorbing heat during the combustion process?

A) carbon dioxide

B) ethyl mercaptan

C) oxygen

D) nitrogen

D) nitrogen

20. By definition,the specific gravity of a gas (vapour) is the:

A) weight of the gas as compared to the weight of air

B) weight of the gas as compared to the weight of an equal volume of air

C) volume of gas compared to the weight of an equal volume of air

D) volume of gas as compared to the weight of air.

B) weight of the gas as compared to the weight of an equal volume of air

21. The heat content of 1 cubic foot of natural gas is approximately:

A) 1,000 Btu

B) 2,520 Btu

C) 10,000 Btu

D) 25,000 Btu

A) 1,000 Btu

22. Air that is mixed with fuel prior to ignition is called:

A) primary air

B) secondary air

C) excess air

D) theoretical air

A) primary air

23. What type of fastener is used to join two electrical conductors:

A) electrical coupling

B) BX connector

C) wire nut

D) electrical tape.

C) wire nut

24. Reading of 7.0" w.c equals:

A) 1/4 psig. (1.72kPal)

B) ½ psig. (3.45 kPa)

C) 3/4 psig.(5.17kPa)

D) 1 psig. (6.9kPa)

A) 1/4 psig. (1.72kPal)

25. Convert 40 Celsius to Fahrenheit:

A) 4.04 oF

B) 40 oF

C) 94 oF

D)104 oF

D)104 oF

26. A Bunsen flame is caused by:

A) premixing air and fuel prior to combustion

B) not premixing air and fuel prior to combustion

C) a low ignition temperature

D) the presence of carbon monoxide.

A) premixing air and fuel prior to combustion

27. How much air is required to burn 1,000 (28.3 m3) cubic feet of natural gas per hour:

A) 100 ft3 (2.83 m3)

B) 1,00 ft3 (28.3 m3)

C) 10,000 ft3 (283.1 m3)

D) 100,000 ft3(2831.7 m3)

C) 10,000 ft3 (283.1 m3)

28. The heat content of 1 cubic foot propane is approximately:

A) 1,000 Btu

B) 2,500 Btu

C) 10,000 Btu

D) 25,000 Btu

B) 2,500 Btu

30. Carbon dioxide and nitrogen are:

A) explosive gases

B) inert gases

C) neutralizers

D) toxins

B) inert gases

31. The specific gravity of propane vapour is:

A) greater than that of air

B) less than that of air

C) the same as that of natural gas

D) less than that of natural gas.

A) greater than that of air

32. The minimum amount of air required for complete combustion to burn 1 cubic foot of natural gas is approximately:

A) 5.0 ft3 (0.14 m3)

B) 10.0 ft3 (0.28 m3)

C) 12.0 ft3 (0.34 m3)

D) 25.0 ft3(0.71 m3)

B) 10.0 ft3 (0.28 m3)

33. What theoretical gas to air ratio is necessary to achieve perfect combustion with an atmospheric natural gas burner.

A) 1 part of natural gas to 10 parts of air

B) 5 parts of natural gas to 5 parts of air

C) 5 parts of natural gas to 15 parts of air

D) 20 parts of natural gas to 1 part of air

A) 1 part of natural gas to 10 parts of air

34. The flame temperature of propane is approximately:

A) 1500 oF (816 oC)

B) 1500 oC (2732 oF)

C) 3600 oF (1980 oC)

D) 3650 oC (6602 oF)

C) 3600 oF (1980 oC)

35.Two undesirable products of incomplete combustion are:

A) CO and Aldehydes

B) CO and N2

C) CO2 and aldehydes

D) CO and heat.

A) CO and Aldehydes

36. The lower and upper flammable limits of propane in air are:

A) 2.0%-11.0%

B) 2.4%-9.5%

C) 4.0%-14.0%

D) 5.5%-14.S%

B) 2.4%-9.5%

37. The major constituents of flue gases after the proper combustion of natural gas in air are:

A) CO, H2O, N2, excess air, and heat.

B) H2O,N2, primary air, and heat

C) CO2, H2O, N2, O2, and heat

D) O2, CO, N2, H2O, and heat

C) CO2, H2O, N2, O2, and heat

38. The flame temperature of natural gas is approximately:

A) 2500 oF (1371 oC)

B) 2500 oC (4532 oF)

C) 3600 oF (1980oC)

D) 3500 oC (6332 oF)

C) 3600 oF (1980oC)

39. Carbon monoxide is a product of the incomplete combustion of:

A) nitrogen

B) oxygen

C) a hydrocarbon

D) an inorganic compound

C) a hydrocarbon

40. The specific gravity of natural gas is:

A) greater than that of air

B) less than that of air

C) the same as that of propane

D) greater than that of propane

B) less than that of air

41. A steam boiler shall conform to the requirements of which of the following agencies or organizations:

A) the Technical Standards and Safety Authority

B) the Heating, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Institute of Canada

C) the American Society of Mechanical Engineers, Technical Standards Division

D) the Interprovincial Gas Advisory Council

A) the Technical Standards and Safety Authority

42. What is the B149. 1·05 term for an automatic valve that has a closing time of less than 5 seconds upon being de-energized:

A) quick shut off valve

B) fast closing valve

C) safety shut off valve

D) 5 second valve

B) fast closing valve

43. Vent sizing for central heating furnaces, boilers and water heaters that have an input of less than 400,000 Btu/h (120kW) may be provided in accordance with:

A) clauses 8.2 & 7.3 of the B149.1-05 code

B) clause 8.4 of the B149.1-05 code

C) cIause 8.14 of the B149.1-05 code

D) clause 8.13 of the B149.1-05 code

D) clause 8.13 of the B149.1-05 code

44. An appliance shall be installed with a minimum service clearance of:

A) 12 inches (0.3 m)

B) 24 inches (0.6 m)

C) 36 inches (1 m)

D) 48 inches (1.2 m)

B) 24 inches (0.6 m)

45. Which of the following code expressions describes a building used by a gather person for civic, political, travel, religious, social, educational, recreational, or purposes for the consumption of food and drink:

A) commercial building

B) assembly building

C) industrial building

D) care or detention occupancy building

B) assembly building

46. Any contractor operating under the Gaseous fuels regulation is required to:

A) register as a contractor

B) inform all employees to comply with the act and regulations

C) monitor all employees to ensure that they comply with the act and regulations

D) all of the available choices

D) all of the available choices

47. Welded gas piping must comply with the:

A) national building code

B) occupational health and safety act and regulations

C) technical standards and safety act

D) dangerous goods transportation act and regulations

C) technical standards and safety act

48. Which of the following is covered in the B149.1-05 installation code:

A) installation of feedstock gas in chemical plants

B) installation of venting systems

C) petroleum refineries

D) distribution pipelines

B) installation of venting systems

49. A G3 technician is allowed to:

A) activate all new appliances

B) initially activate appliances up to 400,000 Btuh input

C) reactivate existing installations of appliances up to 400,000 Btuh D) activate residential appliances only

C) reactivate existing installations of appliances up to 400,000 Btuh

50. What is the largest size of propane cylinder manufactured:

A) 240 Lbs. (109 kg)

B) 300 Lbs,. I136kg)

C) 420 Ibs (190 kg)

D) 1,000 Ibs (454 kg)

D) 1,000 Ibs (454 kg)

51. In cases at threat to public safety a director may make orders:

A) as he sees fit

B) that contravene the provisions of the Act

C) related to matters that have not been provided in the act

D) in languages other than English

C) related to matters that have not been provided in the act

52. Which type of draft is produced by a device upstream of the combustion zone of an appliance:

A) pre draft

B) forced draft

C) induced draft

D) atmospheric draft

B) forced draft

53. When manufacturer's instructions do not state the required clearances between combustible materials and the base of a factory built chimney, the installer may refer to the:

A) ontario building code

B) occupational health and safety act and regulations

C) technical standards and safety act

D) dangerous goods transportation act and regulations

A) ontario building code

54. What is the term for a device used to control and maintain within acceptable limits, a uniform outlet pressure:

A) pressure control

B) pressure transducer

C) pressure regulator

D) uniform pressure device

C) pressure regulator

55. A notice of proposal to deny an authorization will inform the person of:

A) their right to a hearing with the director

B) their obligations and responsibilities under the TSSA act

C) the date on which they will receive certification under the act

D) suspension of their authorization for a for a failure to pay

D) suspension of their authorization for a for a failure to pay

56. which organization is responsible for administering fuel regulations for the installation of gas and oil appliances in Ontario:

A) technical standards and safety authority

B) canadian gas association

C) energy mines & resources

D) canadian standards association

A) technical standards and safety authority

57. What is the term for a device that is installed between the appliance and the vent termination and provides mechanical draft?

A) mechanical inducer

D) power burner

C) vent exhauster

D) power venter

D) power venter

58. Which type of pilot burns without turndown throughout the entire time the burner is in service, whether the main burner is firing or not?

A) continuous pilot

B) interrupted pilot

C) intermittent pilot

D) expanding pilot

A) continuous pilot

59. Which type of pilot is supervised by a primary safety control which must sense the presence of the pilot flame prior to gas being admitted to the main burner:

A) proved pilot

B) f1ame safeguard control

C) intermittent pilot

D) monitored pilot system

A) proved pilot

60. Where the divisional court hears an appeal of a directors ruling, the court's decision is:

A) subject to appeal to the supreme court of Ontario

B) subject to appeal to the ministry of consumer and business services

C) final

D) subject to appeal to the federal government.

C) final

61. Which expression best describes a control intended to prevent an unsafe condition of temperature, pressure or liquid level:

A) roll out switch

B) safety limit control

C) fan control

D) high / low pressure switch

B) safety limit control

62. Which type of appliance is constructed so that all the combustion air is supplied directly from, and the products of combustion are vented directly to the outdoors by independent enclosed passageways connected directly to the appliance:

A) direct vent appliance

B) indirect fired appliance

C) indoor/outdoor appliance

D) direct fired appliance

A) direct vent appliance

63. Which word describes the phrase "acceptable to the authority having jurisdiction":

A) certified

B) licensed

C) approved

D) endorsed

C) approved

64. What is the name for a valve which is normally closed and allows flow in only one direction:

A) flow valve

B) no-flow valve

C) solenoid valve

D) back check valve

D) back check valve

65. In the case of an accident, the director shall:

A) order an appropriate investigation

B) supply medical assistance for all injuries

C) prepare a cost estimate for the damages

D) check the victims drivers license and proof of insurance.

A) order an appropriate investigation

66. The minister may make orders:

A) establishing qualifications for inspectors

B) regarding inspections by insurers

C) establishing grades of gasoline

D) all of the available choices

D) all of the available choices

67 .Which of the following observations is true:

B) appliances must be installed with a minimum 24 inches (600mm) clearance on every side

C) appliances installed outdoors must have a minimum 24 inches (600mm) service clearance to the burner access panel only

D) appliances must be installed with a minimum 36 inches (1m) clearance on the side(s) where service is required

A) appliances must be installed with a minimum 24 inches (600 mm) clearance on the side(s) where service is required

68. Which type of burner is equipped with a constant ignition source and a flame arrestor and is intended to burn the escaping gas during operations to replace the air in piping with natural gas or propane:

A) premix burner

B) power burrier

C) conversion burner

D) purge burner.

D) purge burner.

69. Which of the following burners is NOT equipped with a mechanical device for supplying combustion air:

A) natural draft burner

B) combustion burner

C) power burner

D) non-mechanical burner

A) natural draft burner

70. When is a certificate required in order to install or service a propane appliance?

A) always

B) when servicing a portable appliance for one's own use

C) when installing an appliance in one's own single-family detached dwelling.

D) when installing or servicing an appliance in other than one's own residence

D) when installing or servicing an appliance in other than one's own residence

71 .Which of the following establishes minimum standards for the repair and servicing of gas appliances?

A) natural gas and propane installation code

B) underwriters laboratories of Canada

C) national building code

D) canadian standards association

A) natural gas and propane installation code

72. What is the expression for the maximum pressure to which any component or portion of the fuel system can be subjected:

A) maximum allowable operating pressure

B) ultimate stress pressure

C) relief pressure

D) maximum working pressure

A) maximum allowable operating pressure

73. What is a category I Appliance:

A)an appliance with a power burner

B) a natural gas or propane-fired water heater or central furnace

C)an appliance that operates with a non-positive vent static pressure and a flue loss of not less than 17%

D)an appliance that operates with a positive vent static pressure and a flue loss of n less than 17% 74. A

C)an appliance that operates with a non-positive vent static pressure and a flue loss of not less than 17%

G.2 Technician:

A) may replace a defective residential automatic gas-fired water heater

B) must advise the user of the appliance that a plumber is required to replace the defective water heater C) may recharge an add-on central air conditioner with refrigerant

D) may design and install the duct work required for a new installation

A) may replace a defective residential automatic gas-fired water heater

75.Which term is used to describe a stationary device used to divert the flow of flue gases:

A) baffle

B) gas burner

C) automatic vent damper

D)air shutter

A) baffle

76. Which burner supplies combustion air at sufficient pressure to overcome the resistance of the burner only:

A) power burner

B) combustion burner

C) forced draft burner

D) fan assisted burner

D) fan assisted burner

77. The maximum fine for an individual found guilty under the technical standards and safety act is:

A) $100.00

B) $25,000.00

C) one year in jail

D) $50,000 and/or one year in jail

D) $50,000 and/or one year in jail

78. When an appliance is installed on a roof, the minimum clearance between the appliance and the edge of the roof shall be:

A) 4 feet (103m)

B) 6 feel (2.0m)

C) 8 feel (25m)

D) l0 feet (3.0m)

B) 6 feel (2.0m)

79. What is a category IV appliance:

A) an appliance with a power burner

B) a natural gas or propane-fired water heater or central furnace

C) an appliance that operates with a positive vent static pressure and a flue loss of less than 17%

D) an appliance that operates with a positive vent static pressure and a flue loss of not less than

C) an appliance that operates with a positive vent static pressure and a flue loss of less than 17%

80. propane cylinders manufactured in Canada after January 1,1993 are to be built and marked to the specifications of:

A) the boiler and pressure vessels code

B) the Canadian standards association

C) transport Canada

D) the ministry of consumer and business services

C) transport Canada

81. Where an appliance cannot be installed in accordance with the regulations,what is required to be done?

A) prior to the installation, a deviation from the regulations must be applied for and accepted by the technical standards and safety authority

B) the appliance may be installed and the installer must certify that the installation is safe C) the appliance may be installed if authorized by the gas distributer

D) a deviation from the regulations must be applied for prior to completion of the installation and the start up of the appliance

A) prior to the installation, a deviation from the regulations must be applied for and accepted by the technical standards and safety authority

82. The holder of a G.1 certificate is permitted to work:

A) only on appliances with inputs under 200,000 Btuh

B) only on appliances with inputs up to 400,000 Btuh

C) only on appliances with inputs from 400,000 Btuh. To 1,000,000 Btuh

D) only on appliances with any input in vapour phase

D) only on appliances with any input in vapour phase

83. If an inspector under the technical standards and safety act issues an order or if a director under the technical standards and safety act refuses to renew a licence, registration or certificate, there is no means of appealing or changing the order or decision.

A) true

B) false

B) false

84. Which code expression is used to describe a structure used in connection with direct trade or service to the public:

A) service building

B) industrial building

C) commercial building

D) institutional building

C) commercial building

85. Where premises are connected to a supply of gas for the first time, no person shall initially activate an appliance until:

A) the fuel distributor has been notified

B) the fuel distributor has examined and accepted the installation

C) the owner has examined and accepted the installation

D) the technical standards and safety authority has examined and accepted the installation

B) the fuel distributor has examined and accepted the installation

86. What is the expression for a housekeeping unit, used or intended to be used as a domicile by one or more persons, and usually containing cooking, eating, living, sleeping, and sanitary facilities:

A) residential occupancy

B) dwelling unit

C) bed-sitting room

D) non-commercial building

B) dwelling unit

87. In a situation that constitutes an immediate hazard, a gas technician shall:

A) shut off the gas supply and inform the gas distributor of the situation immediately

B) shut off the gas supply and inform the technical standards and safety authority of the situation immediately C) shut off the gas supply and inform the Ontario fire marshal's office of the situation immediately

D) shut off the gas supply and inform the department of labour of the situation immediately

A) shut off the gas supply and inform the gas distributor of the situation immediately

88. If voltage is constant in a resistive circuit when current increases, resistance:

A) increases

B) remains the same

C) decreases

D) fluctuates

D) fluctuates

89. Transformers which share a winding or a portion of a winding are called:

A) step down transformers

B) step up transformers

C) auto transformers

D) neutral transformers

C) auto transformers

90. What is the kilowatt output of an electric heater that has a 240 volt supply and draws 50 amps:

A) 12

B) 120

C) l,200

D) 12,000

A) 12

91. Transformers which produce a secondary voltage which is lower than the primary are said to be:

A) step down transformers

B) step up transformers

C) auto transformers

D) neutral transformers

A) step down transformers

92.What is the Btuh output of an electric heater rated at 15 kW:

A) 511

B) 5,1l8

C) 51,180

D) 511,800

C) 51,180

93. Power is measured in:

A) volts

B) amps

C) ohms

D) watts

D) watts

94. Resistance is measured in:

A) volts

B) amps

C) ohms

D) watts

C) ohms

95. Transformers which produce a secondary voltage which is higher than the primary said to be:

A) step down transformers

B) step up transformers

C) auto transformers

D) neutral transformers

B) step up transformers

96. Electromotive force is another expression for:

A) voltage

B) current

C) resistance

D) power

A) voltage

97. Atoms are said to be electrically neutral when they contain the same:

A) electrons and neutrons

B) protons and neutrons

C) protons and electrons

D) electrons and ions

C) protons and electrons

98. What is the resistance between points A and C

A) 0 ohms

B) measurable resistance

C) infinity

D) 10 ohms

A) 0 ohms

99. What is resistance between points F and G

A) 0 ohms

B) measurable resistance

C) infinity

D) 20 ohms

B) measurable resistance

100. What is resistance between points C and E

A) 0 ohms

B) measurable resistance

C) infinity

D) 100 ohms

C) infinity

101. What would be the voltage reading between B and C

A) 0 ohms

B) 0 volts

C) applied voltage

D) 0 watts

B) 0 volts