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Patients that have had a mastectomy due to breast cancer often have their axillary lymph nodes and associated lymphatic vessels removed. What side effects should they expect?
Patients will be at a higher risk of infection due to the lack of lymph nodes and possibly suffer from edema in their arms.
While tearing down and replacing fence pieces, Mr. Greene stepped on a nail with his right foot. He wasn't too concerned and continued to work. Two weeks later he had a painful mass in his groin on the right side. Why did the doctor inform him the mass was swollen lymph nodes?
Bacteria from the nail Mr. Greene stepped on traveled through his lymphatic vessels and became trapped by the lymph nodes in his right groin, making the area inflamed and painful.
What are the potential side effects of removing the thymus in a newborn?
Removal of the thymus in a newborn will stop T cell maturation, leading to severe dysfunction in the entire immune system.
Compared to blood capillaries, lymphatic capillaries__________.
are blind-ended
Which of the following is not one of the major cell types of lymphoid tissue?
fibroblasts
The major lymphatic vessel that drains the right side of the lower body is the __________.
thoracic duct
Which of the following is NOT a basic function of the lymphatic system?
regulation of calcium ion concentration in the blood
Fluid found in lymphatic vessels is known as:
lymph.
What vessels pick up excess extracellular fluid in the interstitial space and return it to circulation?
lymphatic vessels
The right lymphatic duct receives lymph from the:
right arm.
The lymph ducts in the thoracic cavity drain into the:
junction of the internal jugular vein and subclavian vein.
What makes lymphatic vessels similar to the venous circuit of the cardiovascular system?
Both vessels have valves.
All of the following are true statements EXCEPT:
The cells of lymphatic capillaries are tightly joined.
What do lacteals, located in the small intestine, collect?
fat
What best describes lymphatic capillaries?
extremely permeable
What is the main role of macrophages present in the lymphatic tissues?
phagocytosis
Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissues (MALT) include the:
tonsils.
What type of mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) is located in the ileum (last portion) of the small intestine?
aggregated lymphoid nodules
What mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) traps pathogens entering the nasal and oral cavities?
tonsils
Lymph traveling from the right arm will be filtered by:
axillary lymph nodes.
What region of the lymph node contains many mature B cells?
medulla
Where are pathogens filtered from lymph?
lymph nodes
What is the function of the red pulp of the spleen?
house macrophages that destroy old erythrocytes
Which organ generates a population of T cells capable of protecting the body from pathogens?
thymus
If the thymus shrank and stopped making hormones in a child, we would expect to see a decrease in the number of:
T lymphocytes (T cells).
Lymph capillaries form a two-way system that moves lymph to and from the heart.
False
What consequences might a patient with interstitial cystitis ,an erosion of the mucous membrane lining the urinary bladder, experience?
Erosion of the mucous membrane will compromise the first line of defense, resulting in a higher risk of infection in the urinary bladder.
Cell-mediated immunity is to T cells as antibody-mediated immunity is to ___________.
B cells
Which of the following are not proteins unique to the immune system?
antigens
Which of the following characteristics is associated with innate immunity?
Rapid response
A paper cut can allow bacteria to enter your tissue because it disrupts __________.
a surface barrier
Surface barriers, such as cutaneous and mucous membranes, serve the immune system as the:
first line of defense.
What type of immunity exists even in the absence of a stimulus?
innate immunity
Sheena's B lymphocytes (B cells) produced antibodies to protect her about 3-5 days after she was exposed to a virus. What type of immunity do antibodies provide?
antibody-mediated immunity (humoral immunity)
Which of the following is NOT a surface barrier serving as the first line of defense?
antibody
What are the primary cells of adaptive (specific) immunity?
lymphocytes
Which lymphoid organ is required for the selection of a functional population of T lymphocytes (T cells) for the immune system?
thymus
Lisa was taken to the emergency room with symptoms of a heart attack, but she also has a fever. Does her husband need to be concerned she has an infection instead?
It is possible she has an infection, but the fever may be caused by inflammation of the tissue damaged by the heart attack
Jenny, a patient in a nursing home, develops a fever unexpectedly. You are about to call her doctor when a co-worker tells you to just administer aspirin to reduce the fever. What should you do?
You should contact the doctor because an unexpected fever indicates that there is an underlying cause of the inflammation that may need to be investigated further.
Patients infected with the hepatitis C virus will most likely receive a treatment based on__________.
interferons
Which of the following is not a phagocytic cell of the immune system?
basophils
Fever is initiated by chemicals called__________.
pyrogens
Which of the following symptoms is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?
Fever
Which of the following symptoms is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?
Macrophages activate B lymphocytes (B cells).
What cells display portions of the pathogens (antigens) they ingest on their plasma membranes?
antigen-presenting cells
What organ is responsible for producing most of the plasma proteins known as the complement system?
liver
Mary's mosquito bite is red, warm, and swollen, indicating she is experiencing the effects of:
the inflammatory response.
During the second stage of the inflammatory response, what do neutrophils accomplish when they migrate to areas of damaged tissue?
Neutrophils destroy bacteria and other cellular debris.
How long after initial tissue damage does leukocytosis occur?
3-4 days
A patient has a high level of pyrogens, indicating that she:
has a fever.
A high level of pyrogens will reset the body temperature to a higher range by acting on the:
hypothalamus.
What is the role of helper T cells in the adaptive immune response?
Helper T cells activate B cells and cytotoxic T lymphocytes to kill infected host cells.
What is meant by the clonal expansion of a B cell?
An activated B cell divides into cells that give rise to memory B cells and plasma cells.
A person who has AIDS contracts rare and often life-threatening infections because their helper T cell count is so low. Which of the following components of the immune response still respond to antigen despite the low helper T cell count?
Clonal selection of B cells
Which of the following statements is true?
Adaptive defenses include both humoral and cellular immunity.
The student who caught the cold caused by this specific
Rhinovirus
was exposed to the exact same
Rhinovirus
18 months later. What component of the immune system will protect her from getting the same cold again?
Memory B cells
Imagine a poison is developed that can change the genes for the self-antigens displayed on class I MHC molecules in the cells of the kidney. What effect would this poison have on an individual?
If the self-antigens were changed, the cells would most likely be recognized by the TC cells as foreign, and the TC cells would attack and destroy the kidney cells.
The drug tacrolimus is used to prevent transplant rejection. Predict the mechanisms of action of tacrolimus.
inhibits T cells
Class I MHC molecules are found on__________.
all nucleated cells
A small antigen that is immunogenic only if attached to a protein carrier is called a(n) __________
hapten
What of the following should NOT elicit an immune response in your own body?
self antigens
Where do T cells become immunocompetent?
thymus
Which of the following are TRUE of class I major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules?
Class I MHC molecules present endogenous antigens.
What initiates T cell activation?
T cell activation begins with a dendritic cell processing and displaying antigen fragments on its MHC molecules.
Activated helper T(TH) cells or cytotoxic T(TC) cell clones differentiate into:
effector cells and memory T cells.
What cells are responsible for cell-mediated immunological memory in which the immune response is expedited upon subsequent exposure to an antigen?
memory T cells
What protein, released by cytotoxic T (TC) cells, perforates a target cell's plasma membrane so that enzymes can enter and fragment the target cell's DNA?
perforins
Madison wants to give a kidney to her older sister. What type of organ transplant will this be?
allograft
What is a determinant for organ compatibility and rejection of transplants?
major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules
How critical would it be if an individual had a disorder that prevented the development of memory cells?
The individual would never develop immunological memory or a secondary immune response.
While working construction you are injured and are taken to the emergency room. While there you receive injections of both tetanus antitoxin, which contains antibodies to the tetanus toxin, and tetanus antigens. Which injection provides you with active immunity?
The tetanus antigen stimulates your immune system to produce its own antibodies, and in turn, provides active immunity.
Which of the following characteristics of adaptive immunity ensures that vaccination effectively prevents disease?
immunological memory
The last step of B cell activation is__________.
plasma cells secrete antibodies
Which of the following is not one of the ways antibodies work?
release cytotoxic granules
Which of the following is
not
a type of vaccine?
live, virulent vaccine
The most prevalent antibody, which is able to cross the placenta, is __________.
IgG
A patient has been potentially exposed to hepatitis A and is receiving human serum antibodies to prevent infection. This is an example of __________.
passive immunity
Determine the first phase of the antibody-mediated immune response.
B cell clones recognize its specific antigen.
B cells develop and mature in the:
bone marrow.
Clonal selection occurs when:
B cells are activated.
Activated B cells differentiate into:
plasma cells and memory B cells.
Which of the following secrete antibodies?
plasma cells
What part of an antibody is responsible for antigen recognition and binding?
variable (V) regions
How many antigen-binding sites for antigens does each IgG antibody possess on its V regions?
2
Which antibody is NOT secreted by B cells in significant amounts?
IgD
The clumping of cells that are cross-linked by their attachments to antibodies is known as:
agglutination.
What is occurring when an antibody renders bacterial toxins, viral proteins, or animal venom inactive?
neutralization
Which of the following is NOT a function of antibodies?
phagocytosis
The primary immune response:
occurs after the first exposure to an antigen.
Vaccinations involve exposure to an antigen to elicit:
a primary immune response.
Which of the following confers passive immunity?
breast milk
What does a fever usually indicate?
All of the above are true.
Jenny began running a fever and blood work shows an elevated number of neutrophils. What does this say about the cause of her fever?
An elevated level of neutrophils indicates a bacterial infection could possibly be the cause of her fever but further testing needs to be done in order to confirm.
Which of the following cells are responsible for immunological surveillance and cancer prevention?
NK cells
What type of cell is activated in lymphatic tissue by macrophages presenting antigens during a viral infection?
helper T (TH) cell
What cells play an extensive role as phagocytes in the eradication of bacteria?
neutrophils
Elevated levels of neutrophils indicate:
bacterial infection.
T cells and natural killer (NK) cells are largely involved in scanning the cells in the body for tumor antigens, a function known as:
immune surveillance.
Cancer cells can suppress T cell activity by releasing:
cytokines.
Medications designed to block mast cell granules from being released are most useful for what type of hypersensitivity?
Medications that block mast cell help prevent the formation of immune complexes in tissues, reducing the effects of type III hypersensitivity.