Lymphatic system

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Last updated 5:50 AM on 10/9/26
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158 Terms

1
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Patients that have had a mastectomy due to breast cancer often have their axillary lymph nodes and associated lymphatic vessels removed. What side effects should they expect?

Patients will be at a higher risk of infection due to the lack of lymph nodes and possibly suffer from edema in their arms.

2
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While tearing down and replacing fence pieces, Mr. Greene stepped on a nail with his right foot. He wasn't too concerned and continued to work. Two weeks later he had a painful mass in his groin on the right side. Why did the doctor inform him the mass was swollen lymph nodes?

Bacteria from the nail Mr. Greene stepped on traveled through his lymphatic vessels and became trapped by the lymph nodes in his right groin, making the area inflamed and painful.

3
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What are the potential side effects of removing the thymus in a newborn?

Removal of the thymus in a newborn will stop T cell maturation, leading to severe dysfunction in the entire immune system.

4
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Compared to blood capillaries, lymphatic capillaries__________.

are blind-ended

5
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Which of the following is not one of the major cell types of lymphoid tissue?

fibroblasts

6
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The major lymphatic vessel that drains the right side of the lower body is the __________.

thoracic duct

7
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Which of the following is NOT a basic function of the lymphatic system?

regulation of calcium ion concentration in the blood

8
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Fluid found in lymphatic vessels is known as:

lymph.

9
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What vessels pick up excess extracellular fluid in the interstitial space and return it to circulation?

lymphatic vessels

10
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The right lymphatic duct receives lymph from the:

right arm.

11
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The lymph ducts in the thoracic cavity drain into the:

junction of the internal jugular vein and subclavian vein.

12
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What makes lymphatic vessels similar to the venous circuit of the cardiovascular system?

Both vessels have valves.

13
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All of the following are true statements EXCEPT:

The cells of lymphatic capillaries are tightly joined.

14
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What do lacteals, located in the small intestine, collect?

fat

15
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What best describes lymphatic capillaries?

extremely permeable

16
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What is the main role of macrophages present in the lymphatic tissues?

phagocytosis

17
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Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissues (MALT) include the:

tonsils.

18
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What type of mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) is located in the ileum (last portion) of the small intestine?

aggregated lymphoid nodules

19
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What mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) traps pathogens entering the nasal and oral cavities?

tonsils

20
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Lymph traveling from the right arm will be filtered by:

axillary lymph nodes.

21
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What region of the lymph node contains many mature B cells?

medulla

22
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Where are pathogens filtered from lymph?

lymph nodes

23
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What is the function of the red pulp of the spleen?

house macrophages that destroy old erythrocytes

24
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Which organ generates a population of T cells capable of protecting the body from pathogens?

thymus

25
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If the thymus shrank and stopped making hormones in a child, we would expect to see a decrease in the number of:

T lymphocytes (T cells).

26
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Lymph capillaries form a two-way system that moves lymph to and from the heart.

False

27
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What consequences might a patient with interstitial cystitis ,an erosion of the mucous membrane lining the urinary bladder, experience?

Erosion of the mucous membrane will compromise the first line of defense, resulting in a higher risk of infection in the urinary bladder.

28
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Cell-mediated immunity is to T cells as antibody-mediated immunity is to ___________.

B cells

29
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Which of the following are not proteins unique to the immune system?

antigens

30
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Which of the following characteristics is associated with innate immunity?

Rapid response

31
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A paper cut can allow bacteria to enter your tissue because it disrupts __________.

a surface barrier

32
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Surface barriers, such as cutaneous and mucous membranes, serve the immune system as the:

first line of defense.

33
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What type of immunity exists even in the absence of a stimulus?

innate immunity

34
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Sheena's B lymphocytes (B cells) produced antibodies to protect her about 3-5 days after she was exposed to a virus. What type of immunity do antibodies provide?

antibody-mediated immunity (humoral immunity)

35
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Which of the following is NOT a surface barrier serving as the first line of defense?

antibody

36
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What are the primary cells of adaptive (specific) immunity?

lymphocytes

37
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Which lymphoid organ is required for the selection of a functional population of T lymphocytes (T cells) for the immune system?

thymus

38
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Lisa was taken to the emergency room with symptoms of a heart attack, but she also has a fever. Does her husband need to be concerned she has an infection instead?

It is possible she has an infection, but the fever may be caused by inflammation of the tissue damaged by the heart attack

39
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Jenny, a patient in a nursing home, develops a fever unexpectedly. You are about to call her doctor when a co-worker tells you to just administer aspirin to reduce the fever. What should you do?

You should contact the doctor because an unexpected fever indicates that there is an underlying cause of the inflammation that may need to be investigated further.

40
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Patients infected with the hepatitis C virus will most likely receive a treatment based on__________.

interferons

41
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Which of the following is not a phagocytic cell of the immune system?

basophils

42
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Fever is initiated by chemicals called__________.

pyrogens

43
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Which of the following symptoms is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?

Fever

44
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Which of the following symptoms is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?

Macrophages activate B lymphocytes (B cells).

45
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What cells display portions of the pathogens (antigens) they ingest on their plasma membranes?

antigen-presenting cells

46
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What organ is responsible for producing most of the plasma proteins known as the complement system?

liver

47
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Mary's mosquito bite is red, warm, and swollen, indicating she is experiencing the effects of:

the inflammatory response.

48
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During the second stage of the inflammatory response, what do neutrophils accomplish when they migrate to areas of damaged tissue?

Neutrophils destroy bacteria and other cellular debris.

49
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How long after initial tissue damage does leukocytosis occur?

3-4 days

50
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A patient has a high level of pyrogens, indicating that she:

has a fever.

51
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A high level of pyrogens will reset the body temperature to a higher range by acting on the:

hypothalamus.

52
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What is the role of helper T cells in the adaptive immune response?

Helper T cells activate B cells and cytotoxic T lymphocytes to kill infected host cells.

53
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What is meant by the clonal expansion of a B cell?

An activated B cell divides into cells that give rise to memory B cells and plasma cells.

54
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A person who has AIDS contracts rare and often life-threatening infections because their helper T cell count is so low. Which of the following components of the immune response still respond to antigen despite the low helper T cell count?

Clonal selection of B cells

55
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Which of the following statements is true?

Adaptive defenses include both humoral and cellular immunity.

56
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The student who caught the cold caused by this specific

Rhinovirus

was exposed to the exact same

Rhinovirus

18 months later. What component of the immune system will protect her from getting the same cold again?

Memory B cells

57
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Imagine a poison is developed that can change the genes for the self-antigens displayed on class I MHC molecules in the cells of the kidney. What effect would this poison have on an individual?

If the self-antigens were changed, the cells would most likely be recognized by the TC cells as foreign, and the TC cells would attack and destroy the kidney cells.

58
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The drug tacrolimus is used to prevent transplant rejection. Predict the mechanisms of action of tacrolimus.

inhibits T cells

59
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Class I MHC molecules are found on__________.

all nucleated cells

60
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A small antigen that is immunogenic only if attached to a protein carrier is called a(n) __________

hapten

61
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What of the following should NOT elicit an immune response in your own body?

self antigens

62
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Where do T cells become immunocompetent?

thymus

63
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Which of the following are TRUE of class I major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules?

Class I MHC molecules present endogenous antigens.

64
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What initiates T cell activation?

T cell activation begins with a dendritic cell processing and displaying antigen fragments on its MHC molecules.

65
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Activated helper T(TH) cells or cytotoxic T(TC) cell clones differentiate into:

effector cells and memory T cells.

66
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What cells are responsible for cell-mediated immunological memory in which the immune response is expedited upon subsequent exposure to an antigen?

memory T cells

67
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What protein, released by cytotoxic T (TC) cells, perforates a target cell's plasma membrane so that enzymes can enter and fragment the target cell's DNA?

perforins

68
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Madison wants to give a kidney to her older sister. What type of organ transplant will this be?

allograft

69
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What is a determinant for organ compatibility and rejection of transplants?

major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules

70
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How critical would it be if an individual had a disorder that prevented the development of memory cells?

The individual would never develop immunological memory or a secondary immune response.

71
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While working construction you are injured and are taken to the emergency room. While there you receive injections of both tetanus antitoxin, which contains antibodies to the tetanus toxin, and tetanus antigens. Which injection provides you with active immunity?

The tetanus antigen stimulates your immune system to produce its own antibodies, and in turn, provides active immunity.

72
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Which of the following characteristics of adaptive immunity ensures that vaccination effectively prevents disease?

immunological memory

73
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The last step of B cell activation is__________.

plasma cells secrete antibodies

74
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Which of the following is not one of the ways antibodies work?

release cytotoxic granules

75
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Which of the following is

not

a type of vaccine?

live, virulent vaccine

76
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The most prevalent antibody, which is able to cross the placenta, is __________.

IgG

77
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A patient has been potentially exposed to hepatitis A and is receiving human serum antibodies to prevent infection. This is an example of __________.

passive immunity

78
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Determine the first phase of the antibody-mediated immune response.

B cell clones recognize its specific antigen.

79
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B cells develop and mature in the:

bone marrow.

80
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Clonal selection occurs when:

B cells are activated.

81
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Activated B cells differentiate into:


plasma cells and memory B cells.

82
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Which of the following secrete antibodies?

plasma cells

83
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What part of an antibody is responsible for antigen recognition and binding?

variable (V) regions

84
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How many antigen-binding sites for antigens does each IgG antibody possess on its V regions?

2

85
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Which antibody is NOT secreted by B cells in significant amounts?

IgD

86
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The clumping of cells that are cross-linked by their attachments to antibodies is known as:

agglutination.

87
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What is occurring when an antibody renders bacterial toxins, viral proteins, or animal venom inactive?

neutralization

88
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Which of the following is NOT a function of antibodies?

phagocytosis

89
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The primary immune response:

occurs after the first exposure to an antigen.

90
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Vaccinations involve exposure to an antigen to elicit:

a primary immune response.

91
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Which of the following confers passive immunity?

breast milk

92
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What does a fever usually indicate?

All of the above are true.

93
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Jenny began running a fever and blood work shows an elevated number of neutrophils. What does this say about the cause of her fever?

An elevated level of neutrophils indicates a bacterial infection could possibly be the cause of her fever but further testing needs to be done in order to confirm.

94
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Which of the following cells are responsible for immunological surveillance and cancer prevention?

NK cells

95
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What type of cell is activated in lymphatic tissue by macrophages presenting antigens during a viral infection?

helper T (TH) cell

96
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What cells play an extensive role as phagocytes in the eradication of bacteria?

neutrophils

97
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Elevated levels of neutrophils indicate:

bacterial infection.

98
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T cells and natural killer (NK) cells are largely involved in scanning the cells in the body for tumor antigens, a function known as:

immune surveillance.

99
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Cancer cells can suppress T cell activity by releasing:

cytokines.

100
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Medications designed to block mast cell granules from being released are most useful for what type of hypersensitivity?

Medications that block mast cell help prevent the formation of immune complexes in tissues, reducing the effects of type III hypersensitivity.