Sensitive Concepts 1

1. Paranoia is _____.
   A. a state of motor restlessness where patient seems unable to sit still and usually is very troubled by this symptom. -
   B. is an irreversible loss of cognitive functioning, or chronic organic brain syndrome, often manifesting as a memory impairment. -
   C. The delusional feeling that people are out to get you.
   D. The understanding of one's environment, in terms of time, place, and person.

C. The delusional feeling that people are out to get you.

2. Which muscle does NOT flex the hand at the wrist joint?
   A. Flexor carpi ulnaris
   B. Pronator teres
   C. Palmaris longus
   D. Flexor Carpi radialis

B. Pronator teres

3. The following factors must be considered in the application of Functional Electrical Stimulation (FES) to assist patients after spinal cord injuries, EXCEPT the:
   A. retention of the range of movements of the joints.
   B. strength of the muscle in the paralyzed limbs.
   C. prevention and reversal of the muscle atrophy.
   D. strength of the bones in the paralyzed limbs.
   E. replacement of the external command by the external control.

B. strength of the muscle in the paralyzed limbs.

RATIONALE:
and E

4. A therapist checks the water temperature of the hot pack machine after several client’s report the heat being very strong. Which of the following temperatures is acceptable?
   A. 190 degrees Fahrenheit
   B. 130 degrees Fahrenheit
   C. 88 degrees Celsius
   D. 71 degrees Celsius

D. 71 degrees Celsius

5. Which of the following nerves is NOT a true peripheral nerve, but an evaginated fiber tract of the diencephalon?
   A. Optic
   B. Auditory
   C. Oculomotor
   D. Olfactory
   E. Trochlear

A. Optic

6. In a C5 lesion, the following may be expected of the client EXCEPT ____.
   A. can give minimal to moderate assistance resulting in bed mobility dependency
   B. can assist with limited transfers due to involved musculature
   C. can propel manual wheelchair on level surfaces with the assistance of projection hand rims
   D. involves the deltoid, biceps, rhomboids, supinator and supraspinatus

B. can assist with limited transfers due to involved musculature

7. A therapist performs palpation as part of a respiratory assessment with the patient in standing. Which structure would be most appropriate to assess with the therapist positions behind the patient?
   A. lower lobes
   B. upper lobes
   C. left middle lobe
   D. mediastinum
   E. right middle lobe

A. lower lobes

8. A therapist administers ultrasound over a client’s anterior thigh. After one minute of treatment, the client reports feeling a slight burning sensation under the sound head. The therapist’s most appropriate action is to:
   A. Temporarily discontinue treatment and examine the amount of coupling.
   B. Continue with treatment, while varying the parameters.
   C. Explain to the client that what she feels is not out of the ordinary when using ultrasound.
   D. Continue with treatment utilizing the current parameters.
   E. Discontinue treatment and contact the referring physician.

A. Temporarily discontinue treatment and examine the amount of coupling.

9. Fracture of the second lumbar vertebra will involve which spinal cord segment?
   A. L2
   B. L1
   C. T12
   D. L4

D. L4

10. The avascular stage is the ____ stage of the Legg Calves Perthes.
    A. Fourth
    B. Second
    C. First
    D. Third

B. Second

11. Which of the following is a beneficial effect of cryotherapy?
    A. Decrease muscle spasticity
    B. Increase collagenase activity in synovium
    C. Cryoglobulinemia
    D. Analgesia
    E. Produce sedation

D. Analgesia

12. This lifting or stooping technique reduces the stress on both the back and the knees. The feet are positioned shoulder width apart with one foot slightly in front of the other. One hand is placed on the forward thigh or a fixed object as the knees and hips are bent and then lower himself to pick up the item. The lift is completed by pushing off with the supporting hand as he stands up.
    A. Tripod
    B. Partial squat lift with support
    C. Diagonal
    D. Deep squat
    E. Power

B. Partial squat lift with support

13. Which of the following statements describe the temporomandibular joint? I. As the mouth is opened, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the angle moves backward. II. The joint can be felt and its movement appreciated by the palpating finger. III. As the mouth is closed, the head of mandible moves forwards and the angle moves backwards. IV. When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forwards on to the articular eminence. V. The center of this movement is near the midpoint of the ramus and not at the joint.
    A. II, III and IV
    B. I, II, and III
    C. I, II and V
    D. II, III and V

C. I, II and V

14. ________ is characterized by an inability to sustain a body part or parts in one position, often the distal limbs, and the movements are slow and fluid.
    A. Ballismus
    B. Spasticity
    C. Dystonia
    D. Chorea
    E. Athetosis

E. Athetosis

15. Which of the following statements describe the supraspinatus? It _____________. I. stabilizes the head of the humerus by pulling over the top of the head while the deltoid pulls upward on the midshaft of the humerus and teres, along with teres major II. is essential to the normal adduction of the humerus. III. is important at the end of abduction when the deltoid is pulling directly upward along the length of the humerus. IV. also helps produce smooth abduction at the shoulder joint by pulling downward and stabilizing the head of the humerus. V. stabilize the head of the humerus by pulling over the side of the head while the deltoid pulls inward on the midshaft of the humerus.
    A. I and IV
    B. III and V
    C. II and IV
    D. I and III

A. I and IV

16. Craniosacral therapy is an evaluation and treatment approach that assume the presence of craniosacral motion to be as follows EXCEPT it is ______.
    A. a physiological motion because it is unconscious and voluntary.
    B. unstable and fluctuates in response to exercise, emotion and rest.
    C. an inherent rhythmical motion in human and animals, different from any other rhythm in the body.
    D. claimed to change in response to trauma, autism or learning disability.

A. a physiological motion because it is unconscious and voluntary.

RATIONALE:
and B

17. What promotes water reabsorption from the collecting ducts of the kidneys?
    A. Glucagon
    B. Follicle stimulating hormone
    C. Arginine Vasopressin
    D. Prolactin

C. Arginine Vasopressin

18. Theoretical relationships are established between the primary concept to be measures and one or more other concepts in this type of validity.
    A. Prescriptive
    B. Content
    C. Predictive
    D. Face
    E. Construct

E. Construct

19. In contrast to a nerve action potential, a muscle action potential has a ____.
    A. slower conduction velocity
    B. lower overshoot
    C. more negative resting membrane potential
    D. shorter duration

C. more negative resting membrane potential

20. Which of the following findings suggest a congenital hip dislocation in a newborn child? I. (+) Trendelenberg II. (+) Barlow’s III. adductor tightness IV. limping gait
    A. III and IV
    B. I and II
    C. II, III, and IV
    D. II and III

D. II and III

21. Which of the following muscles will be affected in a Tunnel of Guyon compression neuropathy? I. adductor pollicis II. 4th and 5th flexor digitorum profundus III. flexor digiti minimi
    A. I
    B. III
    C. I and III
    D. II and III

C. I and III

22. Delayed union is a fracture complication wherein callus formation is retarted, so the fracture fails to mend within the normal healing time. Factors contributing to this complication include the following EXCEPT _____.
    A. Defective metabolism, especially protein metabolism.
    B. Infection of the surrounding tissues (as in an open fracture)
    C. Vitamin E deficiency
    D. Inadequate fracture manipulation

C. Vitamin E deficiency

23. A therapist attempts to schedule a client for an additional therapy session after completing the initial examination. The physician referral indicates the client is to be seen two times a week. The therapist suggests several possible times to the client, but the client insists she can only come in on Wednesday at 4:30 pm. The therapist would like to accommodate the client, but already has two clients scheduled at that time. The most appropriate action is to _____.
    A. Inform the referring physician the client only will be seen once this week in therapy.
    B. Schedule the client with another therapist on Wednesday at 4:30 pm.
    C. Attempt to move one of the client’s scheduled on Wednesday at 4:30 pm to a different time.
    D. Schedule the client on Wednesday at 4:30 pm.

B. Schedule the client with another therapist on Wednesday at 4:30 pm.

24. Which of the following drugs is classified as an anticoagulant?
    A. Propranolol
    B. Losartan
    C. Warfarin
    D. Digitalis

C. Warfarin

25. From the frontal plane, the neck of the femur has an anterior angle of 13 to 15 degrees. An increase in this angle, a factor in in-toeing, is called _____.
    A. retroversion.
    B. coxa vara.
    C. coxa valga.
    D. anteversion.

D. anteversion.

26. Which of the following statements correctly describe abduction of the arm at the shoulder? I. The rotator cuff muscles depress the head of the humerus during shoulder abduction to prevent impingement of the humerus on the acromion. II. Internal rotation of the humerus accompanies complete abduction. III. Abduction is produced by means of the deltoid and supraspinatus muscles working together. IV. External rotation of the humerus accompanies complete abduction. V. Abduction is more powerful in the position of external rotation than in the position of internal rotation.
    A. I, II, III and IV
    B. I, II, and IV
    C. I, III, IV, and V
    D. I, IV, and V

C. I, III, IV, and V

27. The airway branch where alveoli first appears is the _______.
    A. respiratory bronchioles
    B. trachea
    C. terminal bronchi
    D. main bronchi

A. respiratory bronchioles

28. While there are eight nerves that exit the cervical spine, there are only seven cervical vertebrae Where does the first thoracic nerve exit?
    A. Above the second thoracic vertebra
    B. Below the first thoracic vertebra
    C. Above the first thoracic vertebra
    D. Below the second thoracic vertebra
    E. Below the seventh cervical vertebra

B. Below the first thoracic vertebra

29. Dyspnea, a symptom of cardiac dysfunction may be described as follows, except it ________
    A. is often caused by hypertension or aortic valve disease resulting in impaired ventricular relaxation.
    B. can occur in patients with left ventricular hypertrophy.
    C. often occurs with myocardial ischemia and heart failure.
    D. is associated with heart failure or myocardial ischemia, and also with hypotension.

D. is associated with heart failure or myocardial ischemia, and also with hypotension.

30. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE of the knee joint?
    A. Stability is provided by tissues, ligaments, muscles, and cartilage.
    B. Can sustain vertical force up to six times the body weight.
    C. Requires co-contraction of front and back muscles to support the body weight in the erect position.
    D. A trochoginglimus joint with two degrees of freedom of motion.

C. Requires co-contraction of front and back muscles to support the body weight in the erect position.

31. Increased curvature of the spine in an anterior direction is termed ___.
    A. kyphosis
    B. kypholordosis
    C. lordokyphosis
    D. lordosis

D. lordosis

32. A therapist reviews a technical manual for an electrical stimulation unit. The manual discusses several inherent electrical terms such as voltage, current, and resistance. Which of the following terms is commonly used to express current?
    A. ohm
    B. voltage
    C. ampere
    D. coulomb

C. ampere

33. Gait patterns between young (20-40 y.o.) and old (60-80 y.o.) people differ in their gait performance as follows EXCEPT ________.
    A. Stride length is significantly greater in the younger persons.
    B. Peak knee extension is significantly less in the older persons.
    C. Peak hip flexion exhibits a slight increase in the older persons.
    D. Stride time is shorter for the young than the old.

D. Stride time is shorter for the young than the old.

34. A 78 year old male, one month status post open reduction and internal fixation of an intertrochanteric fracture is referred for physical therapy. The client has pain with active movement and decreased hip range of motion. The follow modalities are indicated EXCEPT:
    A. shortwave diathermy
    B. ultrasound
    C. cryotherapy
    D. moist heat
    E. pulsed ultrasound

A. shortwave diathermy

35. While treating a patient with unilateral lower extremity weakness, the patient performs hip flexion in supine with the therapist assisting the patient complete the full range of motion. This is BEST described as ______ exercise.
    A. active-assistive
    B. passive-assistive
    C. active-resistive
    D. resistive-assistive

A. active-assistive

36. A therapist positions a client in sidelying and performs a talar tilt test. A positive talar test indicates:
    A. deltoid ligament injury.
    B. excessive tibial torsion.
    C. ligamentous instability
    D. muscular instability
    E. calcaneofibular ligament injury.

E. calcaneofibular ligament injury.

37. A therapist assesses the ligamentous integrity of a client’s knee by completing a series of special tests. The most accurate way to determine if the client’s ligamentous integrity is compromised is to:
    A. Compare the ligamentous laxity to other clients in the clinic without knee pathology.
    B. Compare the ligamentous laxity in the involved knee to the uninvolved knee.
    C. Compare the millimeters of ligamentous laxity to established norms.
    D. Instruct the referring physician to order radiographs.

B. Compare the ligamentous laxity in the involved knee to the uninvolved knee.

38. A therapist records the vital signs of individuals at a health and wellness fair. Which age group should the therapist expect to have the highest resting pulse rate?
    A. children
    B. adults
    C. elderly
    D. infants
    E. women

D. infants

39. The quadriceps muscle represents the ________ myotome.
    A. L1
    B. L5
    C. L2
    D. L3
    E. L4

D. L3

40. Rupture of the ____ ligament allows excessive backward movement of the tibia on the femur.
    A. Posterior Cruciate
    B. Medial Collateral
    C. Lateral Collateral
    D. Anterior Cruciate

A. Posterior Cruciate

41. The following conditions are contraindications to aquatic therapy EXCEPT:
    A. Raynaud’s Disease.
    B. fever.
    C. infectious disease.
    D. urinary tract infection.

A. Raynaud’s Disease.

42. The modified-modified Schober technique is used in assessing lumbar range of motion.
    A. using a tape measure held directly over the spine between points 10 cm above the lumbosacral junction with the patient in the neural standing position.
    B. using an inclinometer located on the first lumbar vertebra.
    C. using a double inclinometer wherein one is placed on the sacrum and the other on the first lumbar vertebra.
    D. using two landmarks: a line intersecting the line connecting the PSISs with the midline of the back and mark drawn 15 cm superiorly.
    E. by marking a point 5 cm below and 10 cm superior to the lumbosacral junction.

D. using two landmarks: a line intersecting the line connecting the PSISs with the midline of the back and mark drawn 15 cm superiorly.

43. During wrist flexion at what joint (s) does the motion occur?
    A. Midcarpal joint only
    B. Majority at the radiocarpal joint with some motion at the midcarpal joint.
    C. Majority at the midcarpal joint with some motion at the radiocarpal joint.
    D. Radiocarpal joint only

B. Majority at the radiocarpal joint with some motion at the midcarpal joint.

44. This nerve innervates the Rhomboids.
    A. Nerve to Rhomboids
    B. Suprascapular
    C. Lenticulostriate
    D. Dorsal Scapular
    E. Medial Pectoral

D. Dorsal Scapular

45. When a patient can pronate and supinate his affected forearm with the elbow extended, he is Brunnstrom’s development stage ____.
    A. 5
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
    E. 1

A. 5

46. At the anterior clinoid process, the internal carotid artery gives off this tiny, but vitally important arterial branch.
    A. Superior Thyroid
    B. Anterior Cerebral
    C. Lenticulostriate
    D. Ophthalmic
    E. Middle Cerebral

D. Ophthalmic

47. Chiasmal lesions could result in the following visual field defects EXCEPT:
    A. Chiasmal lesion produces bitemporal hemianopsia.
    B. Lesion of the right optic tract results in right homonymous hemianopsia.
    C. Lesion involving both the optic nerve and the chiasm produces ipsilateral blindness.
    D. Transection of the optic nerve results in ipsilateral monocular blindness.
    E. A temporal field defect in the other eye is a result of a lesion involving both optic nerves.

B. Lesion of the right optic tract results in right homonymous hemianopsia.

48. The pulmonary artery leaves the heart via the ________.
    A. right auricle
    B. left ventricle
    C. right ventricle
    D. left auricle

C. right ventricle

49. A therapist positions a client in prone with the knee flexed to 70 degrees prior to completing a manual muscle test of the hamstrings. To isolate the biceps femoris the therapist should:
    A. Place the thigh in slight medial rotation and the leg in slight medial rotation on the thigh.
    B. Position the knee in 120 degrees of flexion
    C. Place the thigh in slight lateral rotation and the leg in slight lateral rotation on the thigh.
    D. Position the knee in 100 degrees of flexion.

C. Place the thigh in slight lateral rotation and the leg in slight lateral rotation on the thigh.

50. The following statements describe elbow joint range of motion EXCEPT:
    A. Flexion and extension originate primarily at the humeroulnar and humeroradial joints.
    B. involves the movements of elbow flexion and extension, forearm supination and pronation.
    C. The subject may sit but not stand during the AROM test with the examiner at his side but not directly in front.
    D. The radial head revolves at its articulation with the capitellum during supination and pronation.
    E. Supination and pronation occurs at the radioulnar articulations at the elbow and wrist.

C. The subject may sit but not stand during the AROM test with the examiner at his side but not directly in front.

51. The cardiac output among the elderly at rest and during light exercise is nearly the same as in the young person because _____________. I. Aged hearts have a faster intrinsic rhythm. II. This is partly due to cardiac hypertrophy with its resultant bigger end-diastolic volume. III. Because of the stiffer arteries among the elderly, end-systolic volume is also greater, increasing the tendency for pulmonary congestion.
    A. I and III
    B. I only
    C. I and II
    D. II and III

D. II and III

52. A post CVA patient can maintain a standing position without external support and show limited postural sway. He can also remain standing while turning his head or trunk. What is his functional grade _______ standing balance?
    A. fair static and dynamic
    B. good static and dynamic
    C. good static and fair dynamic
    D. fair static and good dynamic

C. good static and fair dynamic

53. Among the elderly, humeral fractures at the surgical neck are common where this nerve is in direct contact.
    A. Ulnar
    B. Axillary
    C. Median
    D. Radial

B. Axillary

54. Which of the following statements is true in motions of the knee?
    A. Accessory motions are normally produced when the knee is in full extension.
    B. The axial rotation occurs best when the knee is extended.
    C. Terminal rotation of the knee is a locking mechanism observed during the last 20 degrees of the knee extension.
    D. The axis for flexion and extension is clinically approximated as directed through the center of the lateral and medial condyles of the femur.

C. Terminal rotation of the knee is a locking mechanism observed during the last 20 degrees of the knee extension.

RATIONALE:
and D

55. The central bare zone of sarcomere has no heads but only tails of the myosin. This is the _________ zone.
    A. pseudo A
    B. H
    C. I
    D. pseudo H

B. H

56. A client with chronic low back pain has failed to make any progress toward meeting established goals in over three weeks of treatment. The therapist has employed a variety of treatment techniques, but has yet to observe any signs of subjective or objective improvement in the client’s condition. The most appropriate action would be to:
    A. Alert the referring physician of the client’s status.
    B. Continue to modify the client’s treatment plan.
    C. Re-examine the client and establish new goals.
    D. Transfer the client to another therapist schedule.

A. Alert the referring physician of the client’s status.

57. Upon actively flexing the head, the client complains of electric shock sensations radiating down the spine into the legs. This sign is termed _________.
    A. Spurling’s.
    B. Lhermitte’s.
    C. Lasegue's.
    D. Lasagne’s.

B. Lhermitte’s.

58. Which of the following include functions of veins? I. Propels blood through the arterial pump by exerting pressure as blood flows II. Deregulates cardiac input III. Stores large quantities of blood and making it available when required IV. Propels blood through venous pump V. Regulates cardiac output
    A. II, III and V
    B. I, II and III
    C. III, IV and V
    D. II, III and IV

C. III, IV and V

59. The maximal heart rate (in beat per minute) during exercise allowable for a 70 year old male is _________.
    A. 150
    B. 190
    C. 120
    D. 70

A. 150

60. In Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (CTS), the following statement are true EXCEPT:
    A. There is not a good correlation between results of electrophysiological studies and symptoms the patient report.
    B. Severe symptoms may not be associated with deficits in grip or complaints of weakness.
    C. As the CTS progresses, the symptoms of paresthesia may decrease and be replaced with actual muscle atrophy and weakness.
    D. If the disorder has progressed to the point of thenar muscles atrophy, then nonsurgical treatment may be appropriate or effective.

D. If the disorder has progressed to the point of thenar muscles atrophy, then nonsurgical treatment may be appropriate or effective.

61. Throughout its course, the median nerve accompanies what artery as it enters the upper arm on the medial side of the humerus.
    A. Median
    B. Brachial
    C. Ulnar
    D. Radial

B. Brachial

62. A patient informs her physical therapist how frustrated she feels after being examined by her physician. The client explains that she becomes so nervous, she cannot ask any questions during scheduled office visits. The therapist’s most appropriate response is to _____________.
    A. Offer to go with the client to her next scheduled physician.
    B. Tell the client it is a very normal response to be nervous in the presence of the presence of a physician.
    C. Offer to call the physician and ask any relevant questions.
    D. Suggest that the client write down questions for the physician and bring them with her to the next scheduled visit.

D. Suggest that the client write down questions for the physician and bring them with her to the next scheduled visit.

63. A patient diagnosed with spasmodic torticollis condition is an example of:
    A. Asthenia
    B. Asynergia
    C. Dyssynergia
    D. Dystonia

D. Dystonia

64. What slow writhing movements of a wormlike character involving the extremities, trunk and neck is a movement disorder resulting from pathological changes involving the cortex and basal ganglia?
    A. Ataxia
    B. Athetosis
    C. Chorea
    D. Hemichorea

B. Athetosis

65. Which of the following statements do not apply to elbow flexion range of motion?
    A. It has a hard end-feel on contact of muscles between arm and forearm.
    B. The contact of the muscles between the forearm and arm can stop the motion.
    C. The subjects with little soft-tissue have a hard end-feel.
    D. The normal variation is between 120 to 160°.

A. It has a hard end-feel on contact of muscles between arm and forearm.

66. Partial tearing to the ________ ligament occurs but its femoral or tibial attachment and is a result of forced abduction of the tibia on the femur.
    A. Anterior Cruciate
    B. Lateral Collateral
    C. Posterior Cruciate
    D. Medial Collateral

D. Medial Collateral

67. What level of amputation must be avoided in a patient who will wear a prosthesis?
    A. Knee disarticulation
    B. Upper one third of the leg
    C. Hemipelvectomy
    D. Distal one-third of the leg

C. Hemipelvectomy

68. The following statements characterize the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, EXCEPT:
    A. There is no atrophy and no motor or reflex change.
    B. Sensory and motor function is mediated by this nerve.
    C. More apt to occur with metabolic disorder.
    D. Some sensory loss to paint and touch is typical.

B. Sensory and motor function is mediated by this nerve.

69. This muscle is a pure flexor of the elbow when the forearm is in midposition.
    A. Pronator Teres
    B. Bicep Brachii
    C. Brachialis
    D. Brachioradialis
    E. Anconeus

D. Brachioradialis

70. What fibers bring neurons of one part of the cortex of a hemisphere into communication with those of another part of the same hemisphere?
    A. Commissural
    B. Projection
    C. Assimilation
    D. Association

D. Association

71. This is the deepest muscles of the leg inverts the foot and plantar flexes the transverse tarsal joint.
    A. Flexor Digitorum Longus
    B. Tibialis Anterior
    C. Flexor Hallucis Longus
    D. Tibialis Posterior
    E. Abductor Hallucis

D. Tibialis Posterior

72. A deep sulcus that outlines and sweeps backward above the temporal pole and then continues on the superolateral surfaces, almost horizontally backwards, marking the line along which the hemisphere became folded. The speech and hearing areas are both closely associated with it.
    A. medial
    B. lateral
    C. collateral
    D. central
    E. calcarine

B. lateral

73. Painful sensation of the missing body part is termed ___________.
    A. phantom pain
    B. reflex sympathetic dystrophy
    C. phantom sensation
    D. phantom disease

A. phantom pain

74. The following are typically utilized when measuring skinfold in anthropometric measurements designed to determine percent body fat EXCEPT.
    A. lateral calf
    B. subscapular
    C. iliac crest
    D. triceps

A. lateral calf

75. These lung segments can be auscultated anteriorly EXCEPT the _______ lobe.
    A. inferior lingula of the upper
    B. apical segment of the upper
    C. lateral segment of the middle
    D. medial segment of the lower

D. medial segment of the lower

76. Sudden, violent, hurling movements of a limb may indicate a lesion of the _______
    A. basal ganglia
    B. corticospinal tract
    C. cerebellum
    D. cerebral cortex
    E. corticobulbar tract

A. basal ganglia

77. The height of a specific vertebrae may be used to determine landmarks. I. C2 - level with hyoid bone II. C4 and C5 - level with thyroid cartilage III. T4 - height of the manubrium and body of sternum IV. T12 body - tip of the xiphoid process V. L4 spinous process - level with the highest portion of the crest of the ilium VI. S2 - height of posterior superior iliac spine
    A. I, II, III, and IV
    B. II, IV, and VI
    C. I, II, III, and VI
    D. III, IV, V, and VI
    E. II, III, V, and VI

E. II, III, V, and VI

78. An example of teleceptor.
    A. The ear
    B. A free nerve ending
    C. Tropomyosin
    D. the carotid baroreceptor
    E. a muscle spindle

A. The ear

79. The following are types of radial nerve compression EXCEPT:
    A. Honeymoon palsy
    B. Pronator syndrome
    C. Saturday night palsy
    D. Supinator syndrome

B. Pronator syndrome

80. A therapist completes daily documentation using a S.O.A.P. note format. The following entries typically belong to the subjective section EXCEPT:
    A. Patient goal: return home without assistance
    B. Complains of pain when reaching for his shoes
    C. Hip hiking reproduces knee pain.
    D. Denies pain with cough or sneeze

C. Hip hiking reproduces knee pain.

81. A patient is unable to extend the knee in the sitting position or perform straight leg raising when supine. This may be due to weakened or paralyzed _____.
    A. gluteus maximus
    B. quadratus femoris
    C. iliopsoas
    D. quadricep femoris

D. quadricep femoris

82. In the neuropathic extremity, a poor indicator of inflammation is:
    A. Heat and redness
    B. Redness and edema
    C. Edema or pain
    D. Pain and disturbance of function
    E. Edema or loss of function

D. Pain and disturbance of function

83. The client losing his ability to write due to a brain lesion is a result of this neurological disorder.
    A. agraphia
    B. bradykinesia
    C. agnosia
    D. apraxia
    E. aphasia

A. agraphia

84. The following are characteristic of an ideal mattress overlays EXCEPT
    A. 30 lbs. Of 25% ILD (Indentation Load of Deflection)
    B. density of 1.3 lb/ft3
    C. thickness of 3-4 inches
    D. thickness of 1-2 inches

D. thickness of 1-2 inches

85. Very slow movement
    A. dystonia
    B. chorea
    C. bradykinesia
    D. dysarthria
    E. athetosis

C. bradykinesia

86. You were training a patient to perform bed to chair transfer. If he was able to accomplish majority of the transfer without assistance, how will you rate his performance?
    A. Dependent with supervision
    B. Independent
    C. Dependent with close guardian
    D. Dependent with minimum assistance

D. Dependent with minimum assistance

87. The primary impairment in patients diagnosed with cerebellar cerebral vascular accident is:
    A. impared speech.
    B. visual field cuts.
    C. decreased balance and coordination.
    D. impaired comprehensive skills.

C. decreased balance and coordination.

88. What structure forms the floor of the femoral triangle? I. Iliacus II. pectineus III. adductor longus
    A. II and III only
    B. I, II, and III
    C. I and II only
    D. I and III only

B. I, II, and III

89. Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation techniques are the most appropriate to achieve the therapist's goals of improving a patient’s lower extremity strength?
    A. Contract relax and rhythmic stabilization
    B. Repeated contraction and slow reversal
    C. Contract relax and hold relax
    D. Hold relax and slow reversal

B. Repeated contraction and slow reversal

90. As action potential travels over the muscle fiber membrane, large quantities of calcium ions are released which activate the forces between filaments to initiate contraction. This causes the ______.
    A. Myosin filaments slide outward among the actin filaments.
    B. Actin filaments slide outward among the myosin filaments.
    C. Myosin filaments slide outward among the actin filaments.
    D. Actin filaments slide inward among the myosin filaments.

D. Actin filaments slide inward among the myosin filaments.

91. Which of the following are treatment philosophies of neuropathic arthropathy (or Charcot’s joint) I. Treatment is mainly palliative. II. Immobilization and joint protection are two important principles of treatment. III. Where conservation management fails, joint replacement is performed. IV. Where conservation management fails, surgical fusion is recommended. V. Whenever possible, the underlying neurologic disorder should be treated.
    A. I, II and V
    B. II, IV and V
    C. I, III and IV
    D. I, II and IV

B. II, IV and V

92. A therapist completes a daily progress note utilizing S.O.A.P. format. Which of the following entries does NOT belong in the objective section?
    A. Incision on the left anterior forearm covered with steri strips,
    B. Left lower extremity range of motion within normal limits
    C. Will receive continuous ultrasound to the right anterior
    D. Tenderness to palpation is L1-L2 area.

C. Will receive continuous ultrasound to the right anterior

93. The nerve most likely to be injured in the wrist slashing is the ______ nerve.
    A. radial
    B. median
    C. musculocutaneous
    D. ulnar

B. median

94. The main determinant in the uptake of oxygen by the lungs is _______.
    A. ventilation, perfusion ratio.
    B. lung perfusion.
    C. dead space, total ventilation ratio.
    D. lung ventilation.

A. ventilation, perfusion ratio.

95. Tumor located at the premotor cortex will give rise to ___________.
    A. incoordination of the contralateral side.
    B. paralysis of the ipsilateral
    C. paralysis of the contralateral
    D. tremors of the ipsilateral side.

A. incoordination of the contralateral side.

96. Which of the following statements does not describe work hardening program.
    A. work oriented.
    B. emphasize physical conditioning through strengthening, stretching, endurance, and coordination exercises.
    C. a job specific type of rehabilitation program that attempts to address vocational and behavioral needs of clients.
    D. supposed to simulate or duplicate actual job tasks.

B. emphasize physical conditioning through strengthening, stretching, endurance, and coordination exercises.

97. What is the maximal volume inspired after normal inspiration?
    A. Functional residual capacity
    B. Vital capacity
    C. Tidal capacity
    D. Inspiratory reserve volume

D. Inspiratory reserve volume

98. What part of the central system gathers information about the environment as well as the magnitude of the response of its effects and transmits it to the center?
    A. central processor
    B. integrating center
    C. sensor
    D. effector

C. sensor

99. Factors contributing to neuropathic plantar ulceration in patients with diabetes include the following EXCEPT:
    A. Limited mobility of the great toe metatarsophalangeal joint
    B. Increased plantar sensation
    C. Foot deformities
    D. Limited mobility of the subtalar joint
    E. Limited mobility of the talocrural joint

B. Increased plantar sensation

100. If a 40 kilogram force is applied over an area of four square centimeters, the pressure (in kilogram per square centimeter) is equal to ____.
     A. 20
     B. 10
     C. 30
     D. 40

B. 10