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Last updated 1:24 AM on 10/6/26
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72 Terms

1
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clinical features of glomerular disease include which of the following? (1) hypertension, (2) hematuria, (3) proteinuria, (4) oliguria, (5) azotemia

all are correct

2
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the most common cause of glomerular damage is

antigen/antibody complexes

3
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red urine may be due to

myoglobin

4
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when performing a microscopic examination of urine sedument, which of the following are enumerated using low power

casts

5
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urine osmolality is related to what

specific gravity

6
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a urine’s specific gravity is directly proportional to its

dissolved solids

7
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in a hypotonic urine, RBCs have what type of appearance

ghost cells

8
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the presence of WBC casts indicates

renal infection or inflammation

9
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centrifugation requirements for urine sediment preparation are

450 g for 5 minutes

10
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the autoimmune disease in which patients produce anti-DNA and in which chronic renal failure is a major cause of death

systemic lupus erythematosus

11
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urine production of less than 400 ml/day is

oliguria

12
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a generalized loss of proximal tubular function is a characteristic of

fanconi’s syndrome

13
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the exclusive site of plasma filtration is the

cortex

14
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urine specific gravity is an index of the ability of the kidney to

concentrate the urine

15
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upper urinary tract includes all the following except

urethra

16
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the daily total urine volume reflects all of the following except

patient’s surface area

17
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healthy individuals may have which of the following in their urine as a normal finding after strenuous exercise

hyaline and finely granular casts

18
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osmolality is the measure of

dissolved particles including ions

19
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the function of the large intestine is primarily

absorption of water, sodium, and chloride

20
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the primary site in which food is digested and absorbed is the

small intestine

21
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vitality assessment of a semen specimen includes

percentage of living sperm

22
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which of the following can give false negative urine protein reading

very dilute urine

23
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another name for primary glomerular disease is

glomerulonephritis

24
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a brown or black pigment in urine can be caused by

melanin

25
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all of the following statements about urine specimen volume are true except

urine volumes less than 3 ml must be rejected as QNS (quantity not sufficient)

26
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all of the following can result in a turbid urine except

urochrome

27
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which of the following are NOT standardized when commerical systems are used for the

the use of kohler illumination in examining sediment

28
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the term ‘occult blood’ describes blood that

is hidden and not visibly apparent in the stool specimen

29
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the sugar (carbohydrate) of interest in male fertility is

fructose

30
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all of the following are considered non pathologic in a urine sediment under the microscope except

pus cells

31
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a urine sediment could have which of the following formed elements and still be considered ‘normal’

two or fewer hyaline casts

32
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neutral fats can be viewed microscopically for qualitative analysis with the following except

methylene blue

33
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which of the following tests is least affected by standing or improperly stored urine

glucose

34
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a urine that produces a large amount of white foam when mixed should be suspected to contained increased amounts of

protein

35
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what is the most significant sperm analysis result that may indicate an infection in the male genital tract

leukocytes in sperm

36
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the clarity of freshly voided urine specimen from healthy individual is

clear

37
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the consistency of a fecal specimen can be graded as all the following except

solid

38
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the major cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults is

membranous glomerulonephritis

39
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which of the following statements is false about yeast infection in the urinary tract

occurs in only females

40
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when using a refractometer to measure urine concentration, the scientist must correct for which of the following in their calculations

glucose

41
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oxidation of bilirubin to biliverdin in urine results in which of the following urine colors

green

42
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a deficiency in arginine vasopressin (ADH) is associated with a

low urine SG

43
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during urine microscopy, the crystal that take the shape of a coffin lid is called

triple phosphate crystal

44
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calibration of refractometers is performed by measuring the specific gravity of distilled water and

sodium chloride

45
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the renal disease that follows a mucosal infection is

IgA nephropathy

46
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milky urine from a 24 year old woman would most likely contain

many WBCs

47
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foul smelling odor from stool can be as a result of

fecal fat

48
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which of the following urine results is most likely to be affected by prolonged exposure to light

bilirubin

49
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approximately 70% of ejaculate fluid comes from the

seminal vesicles

50
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all the following can lead to chronic glomerulonephritis except

fanconi syndrome

51
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which urine specimen should be rejected

12 ml specimen with a small amount of fecal matter

52
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the most common source of large numbers of squamous epithelial cells is the

vagina

53
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the ova of which parasite is likely to be found in urine sediments

schistosoma hematobium

54
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the following urine crystals are considered clinically significant except

uric acid

55
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which substance found in urine is considered pathologic

yeast

56
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approximately 75% of the renal calculi that form in patients contain

calcium

57
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a sperm motility graded as “3” indicates

motile, with moderate linear progression

58
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which of the following positive chemical reactions is most closely associated with the presence of yeast in the urine sediments

glucose

59
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all the following may contribute to the color of urine except

gender

60
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an increased number of meat fibers (creatorrhea) in feces correlates with

impaired digestion

61
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the sediment of a urine specimen with a reagent strip glucose of 250 mg/dl and pH of 5.5 is ideal for the presence of

candida albicans

62
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the first sign of renal disease in diabetes mellitus

microalbuminuria

63
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quantitative testing for any fecal substances requires which fecal specimen

multiple day collection

64
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all of the following require confirmatory tests following positive urinalysis result except

urobilinogen

65
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the inability to convert dietary foodstuffs into readily absorbable substances is called

maldigestions

66
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urine normal color is derived from one of the following except

bilirubin

67
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urine reagent strips should be stored in

a cool dry area

68
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the creatinine clearance is reported in

mL/min

69
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which of the following statements about chronic renal failure is true

it eventually progresses to end stage renal disease

70
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the reason for performing a clinitest on a newborn’s urine is to check for

lactose

71
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secretory diarrhea can result from all of the following conditions except

maldigestion

72
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a potential complication caused by early delivery of a premature newborn is