Theriogenology - Exam 3: Pull This, Then That . . . NOT THAT!

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Last updated 11:30 AM on 10/15/26
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222 Terms

1
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The branch of medicine concerned with the care of the female during pregnancy is what?

Obstetrics

2
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When the fetus's HPA axis matures, what happens to estrogen and progesterone?

Progesterone decreases and estrogen increases

3
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What is the inciting event that leads to myometrial contractions and parturition?

Fetal stress (cortisol)

4
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What are the three uterine stages' general descriptions?

Stage 1: uterine contraction and fetal positioning

Stage 2: release of allantoic fluid

Stage 3: expulsion of membranes

5
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What is the number one cause of bovine dystocia?

Management

6
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What percentage of fetuses present caudal longitudinally with hind limbs extended?

25%

7
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Can a caudal longitudinal fetus with hind limbs extended come out unassisted?

Yes

8
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You should help when there is no progression over what period of time?

30 minutes (slide originally said 1 hour, but he corrected it)

9
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A fetotomy should not take more than how many cuts?

4

10
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What are the four possible presentations?

Cranial longitudinal

Caudal longitudinal

Transverse dorsal

Transverse ventral

11
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What are the four possible positions?

Dorsosacral

Dorsopubic

Dorsoilial right

Dorsoilial left

12
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What are the two possible postures per limb?

Extended

Retained

13
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What are the three differentials if you have four legs coming out at once?

Transverse ventral

Twins

Schistosomas reflexus

14
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What are the four mutations that can help you reposition a fetus?

Version (change orientation for malpresentation)

Detorsion (turn on longitudinal axis)

Repulsion (push back to make room)

Extension (straighten flexed limb/head)

15
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What is a good place to grab a fetus's head?

The eye sockets

16
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What drugs are useful in dystocia?

Lidocaine epidural

Epinephrine to relax uterus

17
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What type of lube is toxic if it enters the peritoneum?

J-lube

18
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How much colostrum does a newborn need?

10% of bodyweight or at least 200 g of IgG within 12 hours

19
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What genetic disorder of calves will prevent them from drinking?

Cleft palate

20
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T/F: You should separate the calf and dam as soon as possible to prevent contamination

False, need to let them bond

21
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What must you always leave yourself during a fetotomy?

A handle

22
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What is the purpose of the fetotome?

Protect dam when threading wire

23
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What is the primary indication for C-section?

Fetal oversize!

24
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What nerve block is used during a left standing C-section?

Paravertebral nerve block

25
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What is the primary focus when sewing up a C-section?

Tight seal

26
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What are the advantages of a ventral midline C-section?

Best exposure, least contamination

27
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The placenta is usually expelled within how many hours?

2 hours

28
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Retained placenta occurs due to failure of what?

Cotyledon villi to release from the caruncle tissue

29
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Caruncles present on the (maternal/fetal) endometrial surface while cotyledons present on the (maternal/fetal) side

Maternal; fetal

30
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Bovine placenta's are considered retained after how many hours?

12

31
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Retained placenta occurs more in what breed?

Dairy

32
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T/F: Most retained placenta cows will present systemically ill

False

33
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Retained placenta predisposes to what disease that can decrease reproductive efficacy?

Metritis

34
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T/F: Progressive liquefactive putrefaction is a sign that the cow is systemically ill

False, systemically well as it breaks down membranes

35
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T/F: You should use manual traction and uterine lavage to remove retained placenta

False

36
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What period of time is the transition period?

3 weeks before calving to 3 weeks after

37
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Infection limited to the endometrium is called what?

Endometritis

38
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T/F: Cows with endometritis are systemically okay

True

39
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What is the main clinical sign of endometritis?

Prurulent discharge after 21 days post-partum

40
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What test can you run do help diagnose subclinical endometritis?

Uterine cytology

41
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How do we treat endometritis?

PGF2a to empty uterus

42
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T/F: Intrauterine antibiotics can be used to treat endometritis

False

43
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Describe normal lochia

Reddish brown without odor

44
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Inflammation of all layer of the uterus within 21 days post-partum is what?

Metritis

45
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What are the three types of metritis?

Subclinical

Clinical

Puerperal (septic)

46
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What are the predisposing factors of metritis?

Anything that delays involution

47
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What is the most common isolate of metritis?

E. coli

48
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What isolate usually causes metritis greater than 2 weeks post-partum?

Trueperella pyogenes

49
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What is abnormal about uterine discharge from metritis?

Strong odor

50
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The period between birth and complete uterine involution is what?

Puerperium

51
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Puerperal metritis usually occurs within what time frame?

Within first two weeks

52
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What is often the first sign of puerperal metritis?

Decreased milk and appetite

53
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What is the treatment of subclinical metritis?

Ecbolics and C/S

54
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What is the treatment of puerperal metritis?

Systemic antibiotics

Anti-inflammatories

IV fluids

PGF2a

Treat animals signs

55
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Purulent material in either or both arms of the uterus is called what?

Pyometra

56
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What causes pyometra in cattle?

Early ovulation during involution or sexually transmitted

57
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How is pyometra treated?

PGF2a

58
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Calves with fixed, rigid, or twisted joints come from what disease?

Arthrogryposis

59
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What toxin ingested at 40 - 70 days of gestation will cause arthrogryposis?

Lupines

60
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What are the characteristics of Arthorgryposis Multiplex?

Small for age and diminished muscle mass

61
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Still born with skeletal abnormalities and "spidery" appearance is what?

Bovine arachnomelia syndrome

62
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Bovine citrullinemia is an inherited disorder of what process?

Urea cycle

63
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What dwarfism is usually aborted at 7 months?

Dexter bulldog dwarfism

64
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What species' dwarfs appears normal at birth but fails to grow, leading to short legs and thick bodies?

Aberdeen Angus

65
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What condition occurs after a slightly prolonged gestation then a stillbirth, with a shortened spine?

Brachyspina

66
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Abnormal development of the vertebrae leading to short neck and stillbirth is what condition?

Complex vertebral malformation

67
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What non-lethal condition can have a normal birth, but has reduced elasticity of connective tissue?

Congenital contractual arachnodactyly

68
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What breed and gene are affected by crooked tail syndrome?

Belgian blue and MRC2 gene

69
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Early embryonic mortality during implantation in the uterus can occur due to deficiency of what?

Uridine monophosphate synthase

70
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Extra limbs that originate from the neck or back is what?

Developmental duplication

71
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Spontaneous and stimulus-responsive spasm that are prenatal is what condition?

Inherited congenital myoclonus

72
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What condition involves incompletely formed ligaments, muscles, and tendons in Jersey cattle?

Limber leg

73
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Partial or complete agenesis of the lumbar area is what condition?

Perosomus Elumbis

74
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Non-division or fusion of the digits is what condition?

Syndactylism (mule foot disease)

75
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Spinal inversion with exposure of viscera is what condition?

Schistosomus reflexus

76
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What Is indicated for treatment of

Schistosomus reflexus?

C-section on ventral midline

77
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Extreme subcutaneous edema and poorly formed lungs, leading to dystocia is associated with what condition?

Pulmonary hypoplasia and anasarca

78
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Formation of spherical structure covered with hairy skin is what condition?

Amorphous globosus

79
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Pregnancy loss before what day is considered type 1 AOS?

42 days

80
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What teratogenic plant causes abortion, premature birth, uterine edema, and anorexia?

Gutierrezia (broomweed)

81
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Name three teratogenic plant with a piperidine alkaloid that is a neuromuscular blocking agent leading to multiple congenital contractures between day 40 and 70?

Lupinus formosus (lupines)

Conium maculatum (poison hemlock)

Nicotiana glauca (Tree tobacco)

82
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What Teratogenic plant contains cyclopamine which decreases heart rate and blood pressure, leading to prolonged fetal development and cyclops?

Veratrum californicum

83
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What are two pre-disposing factors to vaginal prolapse?

Prepartum and multiparous

84
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Describe a grade 1 vaginal prolapse

Floor protrudes intermittently

85
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Describe a grade 2 vaginal prolapse

Floor protrudes permanently

86
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Describe a grade 3 vaginal prolapse

Cervix and floor protrude

87
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Describe a grade 4 vaginal prolapse

Prolonged prolapse leading to necrosis

88
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Which suture pattern must be removed prior to calving?

Buhner

89
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Buhner pattern mimics what muscle?

Constrictor vestibuli

90
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What pattern anchors both sides of the dorsal vagina?

Minchev technique

91
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What is the advantage of the Minchev tenchnique over the buhner?

Does not restrict vaginal opening

92
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What more permanent repair requires two surgeons and will not interfere with parturition?

Modified Winkler's Cerviopexy

93
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What alternative to the buhner method has less inflammation and is easier to perform?

Prolapse pins

94
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T/F: You can performa a caslick's on a cow

True, but only for grade one and recurrence is likely

95
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What key finding can distinguish uterine prolapse from vaginal prolapse?

Caruncles (pepperoni)

96
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What sequela of uterine prolapse can lead to hypovolemic shock?

Uterine artery rupture

97
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T/F: If a client has a cow with uterine prolapse, you should suggest they come by trailer ASAP

False, trailer rides can rupture the uterine artery, you should go to them

98
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What electrolyte imbalance can predispose to uterine prolapse?

Hypocalcemia

99
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Once you reduce the uterus, what should you give to prevent recurrence?

Oxytocin

100
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T/F: Uterine prolapse predisposes the animal to recurrence

False, recurrence is not more likely after prolapse