iPTX 3 exam 4 - Tuberculosis (TB)

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82 Terms

1
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What makes up the MTB complex?

M. tuberculosis, M. bovis, M. africanum

2
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T or F:

M. tuberculosis grows very slowly

True

3
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what are the 3 factors in which TB progresses into Active TB?

# of organisms inhaled, virulence of MTB, patient's cell-mediated immunity

4
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what is a latent TB infection?

Asymptomatic infection that has a normal CXR

5
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T or F:

A Latent TB Infection means that you're not contagious to others

True

6
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what is active TB diease?

Symptomatic disese that has abnormal CXR and positive AFB smear/culture/PCR

7
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What are the risk factors related to Active TB?

HIV/AIDS, residents and employees of high-risk congregate settings

8
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What is primary active TB disease?

Directly exposed to TB that commonly occurs in children and immunocompromised patients

9
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what is reactivation/secondary active TB disease?

A latent TB infection that lies dormat and progresses into an active disease once it is "triggered"

10
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What is pulmonary TB?

Cavitary TB that is the most contagious type

11
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what is the pathophysiology of pulmonary TB?

Bursting of the alveolar granuloma that leads into lesions

12
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what are disseminated/Miliary TB?

hematogenous spread of tubercle bacilli with multiple lesions

13
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What is extrapulmonary TB?

All organ systems can be affected

14
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What organ system is most commonly affected by extrapulmonary TB?

Lymph nodes, Pleural

15
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What organ system is least commonly affected by extrapulmonary TB?

Peritoneum, Pericardium

16
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what are the 2 types of TB tests?

Mantoux Tuberculin Skin test (TST), Interferon Gamma Release Assay (IGRA) QuantiFERON-TB

17
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how is TST test used?

uses a Tuberculin-purified protein derivative (PPD) with results that read after 48-72 hours

18
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how is the IGRA Assay test used?

Blood mixed in with mycobacterial agents that gives results within 24 hours

19
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What is the diagnosis of Active TB disease?

Clinical presentation, Radiologic evidence, Samples collected from the possible site of infection, AFB smears/cultures and MTB PCR assay confirm or negate diagnosis

20
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What is the clinical presentation of Active Pulmonary TB disease?

Bad cough that lasts > 3 weeks, weight loss, chills, nights sweats

21
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what do HIV patients with TB presents itself as?

Atypical presentation; disseminated/extrapulmonary disease is more common

22
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How is the culture collection for Pulmonary TB done?

Recommend 3 consecutive, early morning sputum collections 8 - 24 hours apart

23
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How is the culture collection of Extrapulmonary TB done?

Collect the sample of draining fluid or biopses of infected site

24
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What are the usual traditional Microbiologic diagnosis for TB?

Solid agar, Broth-based culture, Rapid PCR test

25
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T or F:

Infection Prevention is not only needed for Active TB patients

False

26
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T or F:

By law, active TB cases must be reported to the local Heatlh department

True

27
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What are the preferred ABx(s) for active TB infection in the intensive phase?

RIPE; Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol

28
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How often should sputum cultures be taken to document culture conversion?

Monthly

29
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What ABx(s) are used for Active TB infections in the Continuation phase?

Isoniazid + Rifampin

30
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what is the usual druation of therapy for continuation phase of Active TB infections?

4 months

31
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what patients require 7 months of continuation phase for active TB infection?

Pulmonary TB patients, initial phase of treatment did NOT include PZA, HIV patients not on ART during TB treatment

32
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what is the dosing interval for an Active TB infection?

Daily

33
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T or F:

A 4-month regimen of rifapentine (RPT) and Moxifloxacin (MOX) is just as effective and safe as RIPE

True

34
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what are the strengths of using RPT/MOX therapy for an active TB infection?

similar risks for hepatotoxicity

35
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What are the limitations of RPT/MOX therapy?

Pill burden, high costs, limited in HIV/AIDS, must perform directly observed treatment for more than 5 days

36
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What does the 2025 ATS/CDC/IDSA guidelines say about RPT/MOX therapy?

It is a conditional recommendation for > 12 YO with drug-susceptible pulmonary TB

37
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what is the duration of therapy of RPT/MOX in the intestive phase?

8 weeks

38
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What ABx(s) are include in the intensive phase for RPT/MOX therapy for active TB infections?

Daily RPT + MOX + INH (isoniazid) + vit B6 (pyridoxine) + PZA

39
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what is the duration of therapy for the consolidation phase for RPT/MOX therapy for an active TB infection?

9 weeks

40
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What ABx is the first-line therapy in Active TB infections?

Isoniazid (INH)

41
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what is the daily dosing and the max daily dosing for INH?

5 mg/kg, max 300 mg

42
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what are the common adverse effects of INH?

Hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy

43
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what can be given to help treat peripheral neuropathy for patients taking INH?

Pyridoxine (Vit. B6) 25 - 50 mg PO daily

44
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T or F:

Rifampin resistance is not often associated with INH resistance

False

45
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what is the dosing for Rifapentine (RPT) for RPT/MOX therapy?

1200 mg daily

46
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What is the dosing for Rifampin in active TB infections?

10 mg/kg/daily (max: 600 mg)

47
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what are the common adverse effects of rifamycins?

Rifampin - flu-like syndrome, GI upset

Rifabutin - pancytopenia, uveitis, arthalgias

Rifapentine - similar to rifampin

48
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Rifamycins are potent inducers of what CYP enzymes?

3A4, 2C8, 2C9

49
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From most potent to least potent, list the rifamycins that induce CYP450 enzymes

Rifampin = Rifapentine >> Rifabutin

50
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Pyrazinamide (PZA) is only given for how many weeks in the intensive phase of treatment in RIPE and RPT/MOX?

8 weeks

51
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T or F:

PZA dosing is based on actual body weight (20 - 25 mg/kg/day)

True

52
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what are the common adverse effects of PZA?

hepatotoxicity, GI upset, polyarthalgia

53
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what is the purpose of using ethambutol in RIPE?

Used to inhibit Rifampin resistance

54
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what are the adverse effects of Ethambutol (EMB)?

ocular toxicity; loss of green and red perception

55
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what is the first-line agent for drug-resistant TB?

Moxifloxacin

56
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what is the main adverse effect of Moxifloxacin?

QTc prolongation

57
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T or F:

Ethambutol can be D/C if no drug-resistance is confirmed

True

58
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what are the 3 ABx regimen used for Latent TB infections (LTBI)?

Isoniazid + Rifapentine (3HP), Isoniazid + Rifampin (3HR), Rifampin (4R)

59
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what is the adult dose and frequency of Isoniazid (INH) + Rifapentine (3HP)?

INH 15 mg/kg (900 MG) once weekly AND Rifapentine 900 mg once weekly

60
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what is the duration of therapy for 3HP?

3 months

61
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what is the adult dose and frequency of Isoniazid + Rifampin (3HR)?

INH 5 mg/kg (300 mg) daily AND Rifampin 10 mg/kg (600 mg) daily

62
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what is the duration of therapy for 3HR?

3 months

63
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what is the adult dosing and frequency of Rifampin (4R)?

Rifamycin 10 mg/kg (600 mg) daily

64
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what is the duration of therapy of 4R?

4 months

65
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T or F:

Rifampin is used as alternative for HIV patients in LTBI treatment

True

66
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T or F:

TB and HIB have a synergistic relationship as active TB can occur at ANY CD4 lymphocyte cell count

True

67
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what is the preferred rifamycin for HIV/TB treatment?

Rifabutin

68
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What is an important clinical pearl about Bictegravir for treating patients with HIV/TB?

DO NOT co-administer with Rifamycins when giving Bictegravir

69
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Multidrug-resistant TB (MDR-TB) means TB is resistant to what ABx?

INH AND Rifampin

70
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what kind of regimens are considered the "New Avengers" of DR-TB?

BPaLM, BPaL regimens

71
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What does each letter of BPaLM stand for?

Bedaquiline, Pretomanid, Linezolid, Moxifloxacin

72
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what is the total duration of therapy for DR-TB?

6.5 months/26 weeks with Direct Observed therapy > 5 days/week

73
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BPaLM regimen is used for what kind of TB microbe?

Rifampin resistant BUT fluoroquinolone susceptible

74
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BPaL regimen is used for what kind of TB microbe?

Rifampin AND Fluoroquinolone resistant

75
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What is the frequency of dosing for Linezolid for DR-TB?

once daily

76
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Bedaquiline adverse effects are what?

QTc prolongation, hepatotoxicity, arthralgias, CP

77
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what are the Pretomanid (PA) adverse effects?

QTc prolongation, hepatotoxicity, myelosuppression, neuropathy

78
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T or F:

PA is considered a pro-drug

True

79
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what is the renal dose adjustment for PZA on a patient that has a CrCl < 30 mL/min or HD?

25 - 35 mg/kg/dose thrice weekly

80
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what is max daily dosing for Rifampin?

300 mg

81
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what is the max weekly dosing for Rifampin?

900 mg

82
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what is the max dosing of Rifapentine?

1200 mg daily