PIOTS 4

D. epinephrine

a first-line non-selective directly acting agent for anaphylactic shock

a. norepinephrine

b. clonidine

c. dobutamine

d. epinephrine

a. norepinephrine

1st line inotropic for septic shock

a. norepinephrine

b. clonidine

c. dobutamine

d. epinephrine

b. clonidine

DOC for hypertensive urgency

a. norepinephrine

b. clonidine

c. dobutamine

d. epinephrine

c. dobutamine

first-line for cardiogenic shock

a. norepinephrine

b. clonidine

c. dobutamine

d. epinephrine

B. Catecholamines

collective term for dopamine, norepinephrine and epinephrine

a. MAOis

b. Catecholamines

c. neutrotransmitters

d. CCBs

D. b and c

the following are part of the Class 1b of anti-arrhythmic drugs except:

a. lidocaine

b. procainamide

c. flecainide

d. both b and c

e. both a and b

c. pharmacokinetics

it is what the body does to the drug

a. pharmacodynamics

b. pharmacotherapeutics

c. pharmacokinetics

b. penicillamine - wilsons disease

which of the ff. is correctly matched:

a. penicillamine - hemochromatosis

b. penicillamine - wilsons disease

c. penicillamine - heavy metal poisoning

B. hemicholinium

this inhibits the rate limiting step in the parasympathetic nervous system:

a. metyrosine

b. hemicholinium

c. vesamicol

a. metyrosine

inhibits the rate limiting step in the sympathetic nervous system

a. metyrosine

b. hemicholinium

c. vesamicol

c. vesamicol

inhibits the transport of ACh to the vesicle

a. metyrosine

b. hemicholinium

c. vesamicol

a. eyes - mydriasis

which of the ff. responses in the M3 receptor does not correspond to each other:

a. eyes - mydriasis

b. eyes - miosis

c. lungs - bronchoconstriction

d. smooth muscles - increased peristalsis

B. botulinum toxin

it is the toxin responsible for the inhibition of the release of ACh to the synapse

a. diphteria toxin

b. botulinum toxin

c. tetanus toxin

b. scopolamine

a centrally acting anti-muscarinic used for motion sickness:

a. atropine

b. scopolamine

c. biperiden

a. atropine

an antimuscarinic used for bradycardia

a. atropine

b. scopolamine

c. biperiden

c. biperiden

anticholinergic used for parkinsons disease

A. salbutamol

a beta-2 agonist under SABA

a. salbutamol

b. bambuterol

c. salmeterol

d. formoterol

B. nebivolol (as well as bisoprolol, betaxolol, esmolol, acebutol, atenolol, metoprolol)

the following are non-selective beta blockers, except:

a. nadolol

b. nebivolol

c. propanolol

d. pindolol

C. sodium nitroprusside (captopril and labetalol are used in hypertensive urgency; sodium nitroprusside in hypertensive emergency)

can be used in hypertensive crisis with organ damage

a. captopril

b. labetalol

c. sodium nitroprusside

d. all of the above

a. alpha 2

what receptor does methyldopa act on?

a. alpha 2

b. beta 1

c. beta 2

c. partial agonist

acts as an agonist at low natural ligand concentration. Acts as an antagonist at high natural ligand concentration.

a. receptor agonist

b. inverse agonist

c. partial agonist

d. NOTA

C. edrophonium

used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

a. dobutamine

b. dipyridamole

c. edrophonium

d. NOTA

a. edrophonium

the ff. are medications used in pharmacologic stress testing EXCEPT

a. edrophonium

a. dobutamine

b. dipyridamole

c. adenosine

c. hepatotoxicity (this is an AE of methyldopa)

clonidine adverse effects, EXCEPT:

a. rebound hypertension

b. sedation

c. hepatotoxicity

d. both a and b

c. phentolamine

treatment for erectile dysfunction

a. phenoxybenzamine

b. timolol

c. phentolamine

d. NOTA

A. phenoxybenzamine

used in the management of carcinoid syndrome

a. phenoxybenzamine

b. timolol

c. phentolamine

d. NOTA

b. timolol

used as treatment for glaucoma

a. phenoxybenzamine

b. timolol

c. phentolamine

d. NOTA

A. betanechol

used for urinary retention

a. betanechol

b. muscarine

c. edrophonium

d. NOTA

B. muscarine

used for glaucoma

a. betanechol

b. muscarine

c. edrophonium

d. NOTA

False: an agonist is defined as a drug with affinity and intrinsic activity

True or False: a drug without affinity but with intrinsic activity is called an agonist.

d. potentiation

a drug with no effect enhances the effect of the second drug

a. addition

b. synergism

c. summative

d. potentiation

D. none of the above (meaning all are uses; mind "except")

all are uses of beta 2 agonists, EXCEPT:

a. bronchodilator

b. tocolytic agent

c. management of hyperkalemia

d. none of the above

A. methyldopa

DOC for gestational hypertension

a. methyldopa

b. clonidine

c. guanethidine

d. guanadrel

methyldopa, hydralazine, labetalol, nifedipine

Anti-hypertensives that may be used in pregnancy, pre-eclampsia, and gestational hypertension; are also category A pregnancy drugs

d. both b and c

rational antidote for organophosphate poisoning

a. scopolamine

b. hyoscyamine

c. atropine

d. both b and c

e. NOTA

B. parasympathetic NS (sympathetic NS is opposite)

which of the ff. has a longer preganglionic fiber but shorter postganglionic fiber

a. sympathetic NS

b. parasympathetic NS

c. enteric NS

d. both b and c

d. piloerector muscles: contraction

which among the following effects of a1 receptor is correctly paired?

a. eyes - miosis

b. blood vessels - vasodilated

c. urinary bladder - relaxation

d. piloerector muscles - contraction

a. constipation (atropine is anticholinergic)

injection of atropine is liable to cause

a. constipation

b. diarrhea

c. bronchial constriction

d. bradycardia

a. 3-methoxy-4-hydroxymandelic acid

VMA or Vanillylmandelic acid is also

a. 3-methoxy-4-hydroxymandelic acid

b. 4-methoxy-3-hydroxymandelic acid

c. 4-(2-aminoethyl)benzene-1,2-diol

d. AOTA

e. NOTA

C. parathion and malathion

these organophosphates are used as insecticides

a. sarin, tabun, soman

b. echothiophate and parathion

c. parathion and malathion

d. malathion

E. A and B

Uses of alpha-1 agonist

a. vasoconstrictor effect

b. management of conjunctivitis or sore eyes

c. used for pharmacologic stress testing

d. A and C

e. A and B

a. heparin and protamine sulfate

chemical antagonists bind to and inactivates a drug. What are examples of those drugs?

a. heparin and protamine sulfate

b. glucocorticoid and insulin

c. histamine and epinephrine

d. penicillamine and deferoxamine

C. norepinephrine

first line inotropic agent in septic shock

a. isoproterenol

b. epinephrine

c. norepinephrine

d. AOTA

e. NOTA

D. Phenylephrine

example of sympathetic alpha-1 agonist

a. clonidine

b. isoproterenol

c. ephedrine

d. phenylephrine

D. AOTA

which of the following is/are true about atropine

a. found in Atropa belladonna

b. also found in Datura stramonium or jimsonweed or thorn apple

c. clinically used for bradycardia

d. AOTA

e. A and c

D. propanolol

used in the management of stage fright

a. nadolol

b. nebivolol

c. esmolol

d. propanolol

b. COX

which enzyme is inhibited by NSAIDs

a. MAO

b. COX

c. ACE

d. COMT

c. K+

which is a component of lethal injection?

a. Ca+

b. Na+

c. K+

d. Mg+

D. A and C (timolol, betaxolol are used for glaucoma; trivia: also echothiophate)

which beta blocker is used for the management of Glaucoma

a. timolol

b. pindolol

c. betaxolol

d. A and C

D. BPH

hypertensive emergency signs and symptoms EXCEPT:

a. encephalopathy (brain damage)

b. AHF (acute heart failure)

c. ARF (acute renal failure)

d. BPH

A. reflex tachycardia

side effect of hydralazine

a. reflex tachycardia

b. hypertrichosis

c. constipation

d. edema

D. carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

which of the ff is first line in the management of OPEN glaucoma

a. osmotic diuretic

b. loop diuretic

c. thiazide diuretic

d. carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

A. oats (contains soluble fiber capable of reducing LDL)

which food reduces LDL levels?

a. Oats

b. Bread

c. Rice

d. Oils

B. colestipol

which is NOT fibric acid derivatives

a. Gemfibrozil

b. Colestipol

c. Clofibrate

d. Fenofibrate

D. hypertensive emergency

which of the ff. types of HTN is symptomatic with target organ damage

a. essential hypertension

b. secondary hypertension

c. hypertensive urgency

d. hypertensive emergency

a. essential hypertension

with no identifiable cause

a. essential hypertension

b. secondary hypertension

c. hypertensive urgency

d. hypertensive emergency

b. secondary hypertension

with an identifiable cause

a. essential hypertension

b. secondary hypertension

c. hypertensive urgency

d. hypertensive emergency

c. hypertensive urgency

asymptomatic and no target organ damage

C. collecting ducts

which part of the kidney tubule does potassium sparing diuretics take effect?

a. proximal convoluted tubule

b. distal convoluted tubule

c. collecting ducts

d. thick ascending limb (TAL)

D. volume of the blood inside the heart before it contracts or at the end of relaxation

which of the ff. is true about pre-load

a. volume of blood pumped from heart/min

b. volume of blood pumped out by the heart per given contraction or beat

c. defined as the pressure required by the blood to be ejected by the heart

d. volume of blood inside the heart before it contracts or at the end of relaxation

a. volume of heart pumped from heart/min

which of the ff. is true about cardiac output

which of the ff. is true about pre-load

a. volume of blood pumped from heart/min

b. volume of blood pumped out by the heart per given contraction or beat

c. defined as the pressure required by the blood to be ejected by the heart

d. volume of blood inside the heart before it contracts or at the end of relaxation

b. volume of blood pumped out by the heart per given contraction or beat

which of the ff is true about stroke volume?

which of the ff. is true about pre-load

a. volume of blood pumped from heart/min

b. volume of blood pumped out by the heart per given contraction or beat

c. defined as the pressure required by the blood to be ejected by the heart

d. volume of blood inside the heart before it contracts or at the end of relaxation

c. defined as the pressure required by the blood to be ejected by the heart

which of the ff. is true about systemic vascular resistance?

which of the ff. is true about pre-load

a. volume of blood pumped from heart/min

b. volume of blood pumped out by the heart per given contraction or beat

c. defined as the pressure required by the blood to be ejected by the heart

d. volume of blood inside the heart before it contracts or at the end of relaxation

C. I, II and IV

which of the ff. statements are true about clonidine

i. transient increase in BP is known as side effect

ii. withdrawal of the drug causes rebound hypertension

iii. one of its side effects is hemolytic anemia

iv. another S/E is depression

a. i and ii

b. i and iii

c. i, ii and iv

d. i, ii and iii

e. AOTA

c. Chest pain for 20 mins (that is for acute coronary syndrome, not CSAP)

the ff. are true about chronic stable angina pectoris, EXCEPT:

a. relieved by rest and nitroglycerin

b. DOC: beta blockers

c. chest pain for at least 20 mins

d. chest pain occurs 2-5 mins

C. management fr pre-eclampsia is MgSO4 IV

which of the following is NOT TRUE about hypertension in pregnancy

a. it is a hypertension at the beginning of pregnancy

b. Eclampsia is seizures with proteinuria and a high BP

c. management for pre-eclampsia is MgSO4 IV

d. pre-eclampsia with proteinuria/albuminuria, high BP

e. A and B

which o the statements is NOT TRUE about first dose phenomena

a. common in patients taking diuretics or alpha 1 blockers

b. postural hypertension

c. best started on a low dose and taken at hs

d. common in patients taking diuretics and beta blockers

e. A and B

C. diazoxide

it is a vasodilator administered parenterally that is for hypertensive emergencies and is used to treat hypoglycemia secondary to insulinemia/hyperinsulinism

a. hydralazine

b. minoxidil

c. diazoxide

d. trimethaphan

B. hypokalemia

the following are side effects of ACE inhibitors, except:

a. hyperkalemia

b. hypokalemia

c. dry cough

d. angioedema

e. teratogenic

C. hypercalcemia

the ff. are side effects of loop diuretics, except:

a. hyperglycemia

b. hyperuricemia

c. hypercalcemia

d. hyperlipidemia

e. all are side effects of loop diuretics

E. AOTA

Which of the ff. are side effects of thiazide diuretics?

a. hyperglycemia

b. hyperlipidemia

c. hyperuricemia

d. hypercalcemia

e. AOTA

D. first statement is true, the second statement is false

percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty is a surgery where a wire is inserted at the groin area into the femoral vein. It decreases the myocardial oxygen supply.

a. both statements are correct

b. both statements are false

c. second statement is true, first statement is false

d. first statement is true, the second statement is false

D. AOTA

which of the ff. is true about the risk factors of Coronary Heart Disease

a. age

b. family history

c. current cigarette smoking

d. AOTA

A. rofecoxib

It is a selective COX2 inhibitor that was pulled out due to cardiac effects

a. rofecoxib

b. valdexocib

c. celecoxib

d. etoricoxib

A. buprenorphine

the ff. are full opioid antagonists, EXCEPT:

a. buprenorphine

b. nalmefene

c. naltrexone

d. naloxone

C. aprotinin

it is used to manage bleeding in patients undergoing surgery such as CABG

a. aminocaproic acid

b. vitamin K

c. aprotinin

d. streptokinase

a. aminocaproic acid

used for prevention and treatment of post procedural bleeding

a. aminocaproic acid

b. vitamin K

c. aprotinin

d. streptokinase

b. vitamin k

used in prevention of hemorrhagic disorder or hemorrhagic disease of the newborn

a. aminocaproic acid

b. vitamin K

c. aprotinin

d. streptokinase

A. ADP

the ff. are anti-aggregant substances that inhibit platelet aggregation EXCEPT:

a. ADP

b. Prostacycline (PG12)

c. PGE1

d. cAMP

c. argatroban

it is a parenteral drug used as alternative to lepirudin for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

a. lepirudin

b. hirudin

c. argatroban

d. dabigatran

a. menadione

vitamin k3 is also known as

a. menadione

b. phytonadione

c. menaquinone

d. NOTA

A. Vitamin k3

which vitamin k is the water soluble one?

a. vit k3

b. vit k1

c. vit k2

d. AOTA

b. phytonadione

vitamin k1 is also known as

a. menadione

b. phytonadione

c. menaquinone

d. NOTA

b. vit k1

the clinically useful vitamin K

a. Vit k3

b. Vit k1

c. Vit k2

d. AOTA

c. menaquinone

vitamin k2 is also known as

a. menadione

b. phytonadione

c. menaquinone

d. NOTA

c. vit k2

which vit k is synthesized

a. vit k3

b. vit k1

c. vit k2

d. AOTA

C. BP = CO x TPR

Formula for BP

a. BP = CO + TPR

b. BP = TPR - CO

c. BP = CO x TPR

d. BP = TPR/CO

A. spironolactone

diuretic of choice for patients with hepatic cirrhosis

a. spironolactone

b. furosemide

c. acetazolamide

d. AOTA

b. hydralazine + isosorbide dinitrate (ISDN)

nitrovasodilator which is used in the management of heart failure

a. amyl nitrite

b. hydralazine + ISDN

c. both a and b

d. NOTA

a. amyl nitrite

used for the management of cyanide poisoning

a. amyl nitrite

b. hydralazine + ISDN

c. both a and b

d. NOTA

b. no oxygen supply due to total blockade

infarction is characterized by:

a. decreased oxygen supply due to partial blockade of blood vessels

b. no oxygen supply due to total blockade

c. build-up of plaque

d. NOTA

a. decreased oxygen supply due to partial blockade of blood vessels

ischemia is characterized by:

a. decreased oxygen supply due to partial blockade of blood vessels

b. no oxygen supply due to total blockade

c. build-up of plaque

d. NOTA

c. buildup of plaque

atherosclerosis is characterized by

a. decreased oxygen supply due to partial blockade of blood vessels

b. no oxygen supply due to total blockade

c. build-up of plaque

d. NOTA

a. sulfinpyrazone

it is used as a uricosuric to facilitate the excretion of uric acid/urate

a. sulfinpyrazone

b. ketorolac

c. acetaminophen

b. ketorolac

it is used for the management of acute pain after surgery

a. sulfinpyrazone

b. ketorolac

c. acetaminophen

A. n-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine

toxic metabolite of Acetaminophen

a. n-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine

b. n-acetate-p-benzoquinone imine

c. n-acetyl-p-benzoquinine imine

d. NOTA

d. high blood flow

the ff. are characteristics of atherosclerosis, except:

a. build-up of plaque

b. narrow blood vessels

c. low O2 supply

d. high blood flow

c. hypotension

clinical sequelae of hyperlipidemia, EXCEPT:

a. acute pancreatitis

b. atherosclerosis

c. hypotension

d. stroke

D. once daily in the evening

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (atorvastatin, rosuvastatin) should be taken?

a. 3x a day after meals

b. 3x a day before meals

c. once daily in the morning

d. once daily in the evening

A. acanthosis nigricans (AE of niacin)

adverse effect of bile acid-binding resins, EXCEPT:

a. acanthosis nigricans

b. decrease intestinal absorption of Vit A, D, E and K

c. flatulence

d. heartburn