Pathophysiology: Week 2 Check Your Understanding

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77 Terms

1
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which disorder is considered a primary immunodeficiency disease?

- hiv/aids

- malnutrition immunodeficiency

- cancer immunodeficiency

- radiation immunodeficiency

hiv/aids

2
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The relationship of blood flow (Q), resistance (R), and pressure (P) in a vessel can be expressed by which equation?

- q = p/r

- q = r/p

- r = pq

- p = q/r

q = p/r

3
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the principle Ig mediator of type i hypersensitivity reaction is

- IgA

- IgG

- IgM

- IgE

IgE

4
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an important mediator of a type i hypersensitivity reaction is

- complement

- antigen-antibody immune complexes

- t cells

- histamine

histamine

5
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which disorder is associated with a type iii hypersensitivity mechanism of injury?

- systemic lupus erythematosus

- graves disease

- erythroblastosis fetalis

- seasonal allergic rhinitis

systemic lupus erythematosus

6
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while in the hospital for management of acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL), a patient develops severe thrombocytopenia. the most appropriate action for this condition is

- anticoagulant therapy

- chemotherapy

- activity restriction

- isolation

activity restriction

7
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venous obstruction leads to edema because it __________ pressure.

- increases capillary oncotic

- increases arterial blood

- decreases tissue

- increases capillary hydrostatic

increases capillary hydrostatic

8
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a primary effector cell of the type i hypersensitivity response is

- monocytes

- mast cells

- neutrophils

- cytotoxic cells

mast cells

9
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the effects of histamine release include

- vasoconstriction

- bronchodilation

- increased vascular permeability

- decreased gut permeability

increased vascular permeability

10
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a serious complication of deep vein thrombosis is

- stroke

- hypertensive crisis

- extremity necrosis

- pulmonary embolus

pulmonary embolus

11
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a 58-year-old woman is seen in the clinic for reports of severe back pain. her chest x-ray demonstrates generalized bone demineralization and compression fracture. blood studies demonstrate elevated calcium levels. the most likely diagnosis is

- leukemia

- myeloma

- hodgkin disease

- back trauma

myeloma

12
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which group of clinical findings describes the typical presentation of ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)?

- pain in long bones, infection, fever, bruising

- vertebral fracture, hypercalcemia, bone pain

- elevated wbc count found on routine examination, asymptomatic

- painless enlarged cervical lymph node, fever, weight loss

pain in long bones, infection, fever, bruising

13
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which is not a manifestation of acute arterial obstruction?

- pain

- purpura

- pallor

- pulselessness

purpura

14
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a 5-year-old patient's parents report loss of appetite and fatigue in their child. the parents also state that the child refuses to walk as a result of pain. the child's most likely diagnosis is

- ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)

- CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia)

- AML (acute myeloid leukemia)

- CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)

ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)

15
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which clinical finding is indicative of compartment syndrome?

- peripheral edema

- absent peripheral pulses

- redness and swelling

- atrophy of distal tissues

absent peripheral pulses

16
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what is the effect on resistance if the radius of a vessel is halved?

- resistance doubles

- resistance decreases by a factor of 16

- resistance decreases by half

- resistance increases by a factor of 16

resistance increases by a factor of 16

17
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the most common primary immune deficiency that affects only B cells is

- digeorge

- bruton agammaglobulinemia

- wiskott-aldrich

- selective IgA

selective IgA

18
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renal insufficiency is a common complication of which disease?

- chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)

- chronic lymphoid leukemia (CLL)

- myeloma

- hodgkin disease

myeloma

19
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clinical manifestations of chronic arterial obstruction include

- edema

- intermittent claudication

- decreased pressure proximal to the obstruction

- distal hyperemia

intermittent claudication

20
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transfusion reactions involve rbc destruction caused by

- donor antigens

- recipient antibodies

- donor t cells

- recipient t cells

recipient antibodies

21
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which vessel normally demonstrates the most rapid blood flow?

- an arteriole

- a capillary

- a venule

- the vena cava

the vena cava

22
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which characteristic is indicative of hemolytic anemia?

- increased total iron-binding capacity

- increased heart rate

- hypovolemia

- jaundice

jaundice

23
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the anemia resulting from a deficiency of either vitamin B12 (cobalamin) or folate is caused by a disruption in DNA synthesis of the blast cells in the bone marrow that produces very large abnormal bone marrow cells called megaloblasts

- true

- false

true

24
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the arterial oxygen content (CaO2) for a patient with PaO2 100 mm Hg, SaO2 95%, and hemoglobin 15 g/dL is __________ mL oxygen/dL

- 19.4

- 1909.8

- 210

- 21.05

19.4

25
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when systemic vascular resistance is decreased, blood flow

- increases

- decreases

- stays the same

- moves to the extremities

decreases

26
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a newborn has melena, bleeding form the umbilicus, and hematuria. the newborn most likely experiencing

- vitamin k deficiency bleeding

- acquired vitamin k deficiency

- von willebrand disease

- disseminated intravascular coagulation

vitamin k deficiency bleeding

27
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pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of

- iron

- intrinsic factor

- folate

- erythropoietin

intrinsic factor

28
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a deficiency of von willebrand factor impairs

- activation of the coagulation cascade

- platelet aggregation

- platelet adhesion to injured tissue

- platelet production

platelet adhesion to injured tissue

29
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the cause of the most common form of anemia is

- acute bleeding

- iron deficiency

- protein malnutrition

- chronic disease

iron deficiency

30
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which causes vasoconstriction?

- norepinephrine

- calcium channel blockers

- a-adrenergic antagonist

- acetylcholine

norepinephrine

31
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the most effective therapy for anemia associated with kidney failure is

- iron administration

- high-protein diet

- erythropoietin administration

- vitamin B12 and folate administration

erythropoietin administration

32
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a normal bleeding time in association with normal platelet count, and increased prothrombin time (PT) and INR, is indicative of

- vitamin k deficiency

- hemophilia b

- hemophilia a

- idiopathic thrombocytopenia

vitamin k deficiency

33
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what laboratory finding is usually found in aplastic anemia?

- leukocytosis

- thrombocythemia

- neutrophilia

- pancytopenia

pancytopenia

34
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widespread activation of the clotting cascade secondary to massive trauma is called

- hemophilia b

- disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

- hageman disease

- idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura

disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

35
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a cause of thrombocytopenia includes

- hypoxemia

- reduced erythropoietin

- chemotherapy

- secondary polycythemia

chemotherapy

36
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the movement of blood through the vascular system is opposed by the force of

- viscosity

- the vessel length

- the vessel radius

- resistance

resistance

37
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a patient presents to the physician's office with pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin. the patient is most likely between the ages of __________ years.

- 6 months and 2

- 4 and 7

- 15 and 18

- 25 and 45

4 and 7

38
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the most appropriate treatment for secondary polycythemia is

- volume expansion with saline

- measured to improve oxygenation

- phlebotomy

- chemotherapy

measured to improve oxygenation

39
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treatment for hemophilia a includes

- heparin administration

- factor ix replacement

- factor viii replacement

- platelet transfusion

factor viii replacement

40
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which condition is associated with an elevated reticulocyte count?

- renal disease

- aplastic anemia

- hypertension

- hemolytic anemia

hemolytic anemia

41
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the philadelphia chromosome is a balanced chromosome translocation that forms a new gene called

- bcr-abl

- Rb

- p53

- ARA-c

bcr-abl

42
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which form of leukemia demonstrates the presence of the philadelphia chromosome?

- ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)

- CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia)

- AML (acute myeloid leukemia)

- CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)

CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)

43
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severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) syndrome is an example of a(n)

- deficient immune response

- excessive immune response

- primary acquired immunodeficiency

- hypersensitivity reaction

deficient immune response

44
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the hypersensitivity reaction that does not involve antibody production is type

- I

- II

- III

- IV

IV

45
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which is not considered to be a risk factor for thrombus formation?

- thrombocytopenia

- vascular trauma

- stasis of blood flow

- circulatory shock

thrombocytopenia

46
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peripheral edema is a result of

- arterial insufficiency

- venous thrombosis

- hypertension

- atherosclerosis

venous thrombosis

47
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in general, the best prognosis for long-term disease-free survival occurs with

- ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)

- CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia)

- AML (acute myeloid leukemia)

- CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)

ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)

48
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the goal of long term heparin for the management of a deep vein thrombosis is to

- relieve edema

- prevent clot dislodgement

- dissolve the thrombus

- prevent further clot formation

prevent further clot formation

49
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RhoGAM (an Rh antibody) would be appropriate in an Rh- _____ woman with an _____ Rh- _____ antibody titer carrying an Rh- _____ fetus

- negative; positive; positive

- positive; negative; negative

- negative; negative; positive

- negative; negative; negative

negative; negative; positive

50
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myasthenia gravis is a type ii hypersensitivity disorder that involves

- impaired muscle function

- symptoms of hyperthyroidism

- symptoms of arthritis or polyarthralgia

- symptoms of glomerular disease

impaired muscle function

51
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the only known curative treatment for CML is allogenic bone marrow transplantation from a suitable donor

- true

- false

true

52
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the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is a measure of the integrity of

- the extrinsic pathway

- the intrinsic pathway

- factor viii synthesis

- plasminogen

the intrinsic pathway

53
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thalassemia may be confused with iron-deficiency anemia, because they are both

- hyperchromic

- microcytic

- genetic

- responsive to iron therapy

microcytic

54
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a 3-year-old boy who exhibits prolonged bleeding after minor trauma and a prolonged aPTT, but a normal platelet count, is likely to be diagnosed with

- hemophilia

- liver dysfunction

- disseminated intravascular coagulation

- thrombocytopenia

hemophilia

55
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two of the most serious oncology emergencies associated with non-hodgkin lymphoma are obstruction of the superior vena cava and compression of the spinal cord

- true

- false

true

56
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blood flow is slow through capillaries because capillaries

- are so far away from the heart

- have the largest total cross-sectional area

- are so narrow

- have no smooth muscle

have the largest total cross-sectional area

57
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the prothrombin time (PT) and INR (international normalized ratio) measure the integrity of

- platelet function

- extrinsic pathway

- intrinsic pathway

- fibrinolysis

extrinsic pathway

58
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excessive red cell lysis can be detected by measuring the serum

- hemoglobin

- methemoglobin

- bilirubin

- erythropoietin

bilirubin

59
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disseminated intravascular coagulation may be treated with heparin therapy to

- enhance fibrinolysis

- inhibit clotting factor consumption

- activate platelets

- enhance liver synthesis of clotting factors

inhibit clotting factor consumption

60
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a commonly ingested substance associated with prolongation of the bleeding time is

- acetaminophen

- tobacco

- caffeine

- aspirin

aspirin

61
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a diagnostic laboratory finding in myeloma is

- bence jones proteins in the urine

- decreased platelet count

- increased IgM antibody titer

- elevated blood glucose levels

bence jones proteins in the urine

62
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what is the correct definition of complete remission (CR) of leukemia?

- cr is the absence of leukemic cells in the blood

- cr is less than 5% blasts in marrow and normal cbc values

- cr is absence of leukemic cells regardless of cbc values

- cr is less than 5% leukemic cells in the blood

cr is less than 5% blasts in marrow and normal cbc values

63
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dramatic hypotension sometimes accompanies type I hypersensitivity reactions, because

- massive histamine release from mast cells leads to vasodilation

- toxins released into the blood interfere with cardiac function

- anaphylaxis results in large volume losses secondary to sweating

- hypoxia resulting from bronchoconstriction impairs cardiac function

massive histamine release from mast cells leads to vasodilation

64
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which type of leukemia primarily affects children?

- ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)

- CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia)

- AML (acute myeloid leukemia)

- CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)

ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)

65
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blood flow throughout the periphery is regulated by

- cardiac output

- the autonomic nervous system

- velocity

- hemodynamics

the autonomic nervous system

66
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autologous stem cell transplantation is a procedure in which

- there is a high rejection rate

- stem cells are transferred to the patient from an HLA-matched donor

- stem cells are transferred to the patient from an identical twin

- stem cells are harvested from the patient and then returned to the same patient

stem cells are harvested from the patient and then returned to the same patient

67
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burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with

- epstein-barr virus

- radiation exposure

- immunodeficiency syndromes

- history of cigarette smoking

epstein-barr virus

68
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the patient is a 12-year-old boy diagnosed with acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL). as part of treatment, the patient must undergo several weeks of chemotherapy. the most serious complication of chemotherapy is

- vomiting

- anemia

- alopecia

- infection

infection

69
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red blood cells differ from other cell types in the body, because they

- contain cytoplasmic proteins

- have no cytoplasmic organelles

- have a longer life span

- contain glycolytic enzymes

have no cytoplasmic organelles

70
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a laboratory test finding helpful in confirming the diagnosis of iron-deficiency anemia is

- elevated total iron-binding capacity

- elevated MCHC and MCV

- elevated total and indirect bilirubin

- positive direct or indirect coombs test

elevated total iron-binding capacity

71
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most carbon dioxide is transported in the bloodstream as

- carboxyhemoglobin

- bicarbonate ion

- dissolved carbon dioxide

- carbonic acid

bicarbonate ion

72
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an increase in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen occurs with

- hyperthermia

- shift to the right

- elevated PCO2

- shift to the left

shift to the left

73
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activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by

- platelet factors

- collagen exposure

- tissue thromboplastin

- factor vii

tissue thromboplastin

74
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vaccination for pneumococcal pneumonia should be performed before 1 year of age in patients with sickle cell anemia

- true

- false

false

75
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the primary source of erythropoietin is provided by the

- bone marrow

- kidney

- lung

- liver

kidney

76
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the final step in clot formation is

- conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

- platelet degranulation and adhesion

- conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

- clot retraction

clot retraction

77
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what is necessary for red blood cell production?

- phosphate

- iron

- magnesium

- calcium

iron