MB1 M5

B. Positive

Rationale:

- Wa > Wc = +

- Wa < Wc = -

500 mL of an unknown liquid was tested for its spreading behavior. The results are the following:

Wa= 5.655 dynes/cm

Wc= 5.635 dynes/cm

The Spreading coefficient is?

A. Zero

B. Positive

C. Negative

D. Five

C. Colligative

Rob observed that vapor pressure lowering and freezing point depression are affected by the number of particles present. These are considered as what type of physical properties?

A. Extensive

B. Constitutive

C. Colligative

D. Additive

D. Molecular Weight

Which of the following choices does NOT belong to the group?

A. Refractive Index

B. Conductivity

C. Solubility

D. Molecular Weight

D. Boric Acid

Rationale: the higher to pka = the least degree of ionization

Which of the following acids undergoes the least degree of ionization in water?

A. Acetic Acid

B. Lactic Acid

C. Salicylic Acid

D. Boric Acid

B. 50 mL is needed to dissolve 30 g of solute

Rationale: Solubility = mL of solvent to dissolve 1g of solute

- 50mL/30g = 1.67 mL/g (Freely soluble)

- 5mL/2g = 2.5 mL/g (Freely soluble)

Jean is comparing solubility data for four different drug candidates. Each statement below describes the minimum volume of solvent required to dissolve a given mass of solute at 25 °C. Based on these data, which compound is the most soluble?

A. 100 L is needed to dissolve 80 mg of solute

B. 50 mL is needed to dissolve 30 g of solute

C. 1 L is needed to dissolve 1000 mg of solute

D. 5 mL is needed to dissolve 2 g of solute

A. Chelate

Compounds formed when an electron-donating molecule binds to a metal ion, producing a ring structure, are known as:

A. Chelate

B. Prodrug

C. Lactam

D. Ligand

A. Dispersion

Rationale:

- Keesom “Orientation” - dipole (permanent) - dipole

- Debye “Induction” - dipole (permanent) - induced (temporary) dipole

- London “Dispersion” - induced (temporary) - induced (temporary)

A nonpolar gas sample is cooled until condensation occurs. The intermolecular attraction responsible is due to temporary dipoles induced in adjacent molecules. Which effect describes this phenomenon?

A. Dispersion

C. Induction

B. Orientation

D. Dissociation

B. Ion-Induced Dipole

KI is dissolved in a nonpolar solvent. The I- ion distorts the electron cloud of the solvent molecules, creating temporary dipoles. What type of interaction is this?

A. Ion-Dipole

B. Ion-Induced Dipole

C. Dipole-Dipole

D. Hydrogen Bonding

A. Only the first statement is correct

Rationale:

- HIGH dielectric point

- LOW vapor pressure

- HIGH boiling point

Hydrogen bond is responsible for the unusual properties of water. One of these properties is high vapor pressure.

A. Only the first statement is correct

B. Only the second statement is correct

C. Both statements are correct

D. None of the statements are correct

C. Ionic

Rationale:

NaCl is metal (m) to non-metal (nm)

- Non-polar, covalent is nm to nm

- Polar, covalent is nm to nm

- Metallic is m to m

Na (EN = 0.9) reacts with Cl (EN = 3.0). What type of bond is formed due to this large electronegativity difference?

A. Nonpolar, Covalent 

B. Polar, Covalent

C. Ionic

D. Metallic

A. I. II. III

Rationale: T is 273.15K or 0˚C

The ideal gas law relates pressure, volume, temperature, and moles of gas in the equation: PV=nRT

At standard temperature and pressure (STP), one mole of an ideal gas occupies a fixed molar volume.Which of the following values correctly represent STP conditions and constants used in the ideal gas law?

I. P= 1 atm

III. R= 0.08205 L-atm/mol-K

II. V= 22.4 L

IV.T=0K

A. I. II. III

B. II. III. IV

C.I. II. IV

D. I.II.IV

D. 1.6 L

Rationale:

↓ P = ↑ V

A gas sample occupies 4.0 L at 1.0 atm. The pressure is increased to 2.5 atm while temperature remains constant. What is the new volume?

A. 4.06 L

B. 10.0 L

C. 5.6 L

D. 1.6 L

B. 23.3 mmHg

Rationale: addition of solute = ↓ VP, so lower than 23.8 mmHg

A solution is prepared by dissolving 20 g glucose (MW = 180) in 100 g water. The vapor pressure of pure water at 25 °C is 23.8 mmHg. Calculate the vapor pressure of the solution.

A. 24.5 mmHg

B. 23.3 mmHg

C. 24.5 mmHg

D. 23.9 mmHg

A. 1.88 m 

Rationale:

A pharmacist dissolves 15 g NaOH (MW = 40) in 200 g water. Calculate the molality.

A. 1.88 m

B. 1.50 m

C. 1.25 m

D. 0.75 m

B. Second

Rationale:

- Zeroth - A=C, B=C, so A=B

- First - energy can be converted, sum of energy = constant

- Second - heat always flow spontaneously from hotter to colder

- Third  - perfect crystal

An ice that melts in water will not turn into ice without external intervention. What law of thermodynamics is being described?

A. First

B. Second

C. Third

D. Zeroth

C. Both statements are correct

The ebullioscopic constant (Kb) is a property of the solvent that quantifies the elevation of boiling point per molal concentration of a nonvolatile solute. For water, Kb=0.52 °C.kg/mol.

A. Only the first statement is correct

B. Only the second statement is correct

C. Both statements are correct

D. None of the statements are correct

B. Acid B is stronger because it has a larger Ka

Rationale: ↑ ka = ↑ acidity, ↑ pka = ↓ acidity

Two weak acids are compared: Acid A has Ka=1.0×10-5, Acid B has Ka=1.0×10-3

Which statement is correct?

A. Acid A is stronger because it has a smaller Ka

B. Acid B is stronger because it has a larger Ka

C. Both acids have equal strength

D. Strength cannot be determined from Ka

C. 3 statements are correct

Rationale: Solubilizing agents is 15-20

Surfactants:

I. Solubilizing agents have HLB values from 3-6

Il. Wetting agents aids in attaining contact between solid particles and liquids

IIII. Detergents reduce the surface tension and aid in wetting the surface and the dirt

IV. Emulsifying agents reduce interfacial tension between oil and water, resulting in minimizing surface energy through the formation of globules

D. 1 statement is correct

B. 2 statements are correct

C. 3 statements are correct

D. All the statements are correct

B. pH = pka + log [A-]/[HA]

Which of the following correctly represents the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation for weak acid?

C. pH = pKa

Buffer capacity is greatest when:

A. pH = 7.00

B. [acid] » [salt]

C. pH = pKa

D. [salt] » [acid]

A. Surface tension is the force per unit length at the liquid-air interface, while interfacial tension is the force per unit length at the liquid-liquid interface.

Sassa, RPh compares two systems: (1) water exposed to air, and (2) oil layered over water. Which statement best differentiates the forces at:

A. Surface tension is the force per unit length at the liquid-air interface, while interfacial tension is the force per unit length at the liquid-liquid interface.

B. Interfacial tension is the force per unit length at the liquid-air interface, while surface tension is the force per unit length at the liquid-liquid interface.

C. Surface tension and interfacial tension both describe identical phenomena at all types of interfaces, so there is no distinction between liquid-air and liquid-liquid boundaries.

D. Both surface tension and interfacial tension are limited to solid-liquid interfaces, and neither applies to liquid-air or liquid-liquid systems.

D. Sodium Lauryl Sulfate

Pharmacist JMV prepares a suspension of hydrophobic powder. The powder clumps at the surface due to poor wetting. Which of the following excipients acts as a surfactant to lower the contact angle and improve wetting?

A. Sodium Chloride

B. Sorbitol

C. Sodium Benzoate

D. Sodium Lauryl Sulfate

C. 3.2

Rationale:

If drug X has E=0.18 and MW=300.82, calculate its Liso using sodium chloride equivalent method:

A. 5.0

B. 1.7

C. 3.2

D. 2.4

A. 1g boric acid is osmotically equivalent to 0.52 g NaCl

Rationale: E-value is the amount of NaCl which has the same osmotic effect as 1g of drug.

The E-value of boric acid is experimentally determined as 0.52. What does this mean?

A. 1g boric acid is osmotically equivalent to 0.52 g NaCl

B. 1g NaCl is osmotically equivalent to 0.52 g boric acid

C. 0.52 g boric acid is osmotically equivalent to 1 g NaCl

D. 1g boric acid is osmotically equivalent to 1 g NaCl

D. 0.40

Rationale: =100 - 60 / 100

A powder bed has a bulk volume of 100 mL and a true solid volume of 60 mL. Calculate the porosity.

A. 0.60

B. 1.67

C. 0.75

D. 0.40

D. Molecular Weight of Colloids

The Faraday-Tyndall effect describes scattering of light by colloidal particles. Which property can be estimated using this effect?

A. Osmotic Pressure of Electrolytes

B. Surface Tension of Liquids

C. Vapor Pressure of Solutions

D. Molecular Weight of Colloids

B. 1.50

Rationale: sample/standard

A polymer solution has a measured viscosity of 1.80 cP, while the pure solvent under identical conditions has a viscosity of 1.20 cP. Calculate the relative viscosity (r).

A. 0.60

B. 1.50

C. 2.16

D. 3.0

D. Zeta Potential

Rationale:  ↑ Zeta potential = ↑ repulsive forces = not flocculate or not clump

Which factor primarily determines the magnitude of repulsive forces in systems containing dispersed particles?

A. Entropy

B. Nernst Potential

C. Enthalpy

D. Zeta Potential

B. X-Ray Diffraction

Rationale:

• Mass Spectrometry - molecular weight

• FT-IR - functional groups

• NMR - elucidate structure

• UV Spectrophotometry - quantify the sample

• Flame photometry - analyze alkali and alkaline earth metals

• AAS - determine metal ion conc.

• Differential Scanning Calorimetry - thermal transition

• Differential Thermal analysis - thermal behavior

Which method is used to observe changes in the crystalline form of a drug?

A. Visual Appraisal

B. X-Ray Diffraction

C. Microscopic Examination

D. Differential Thermal Analysis

C. Brookfield

Rationale: Newtonian fluids (Capillary) - Ostwa Says Ubbe 

Addtn’l info: Thixotropy - gel to sol

Thixotropy is a rheological property of certain non-Newtonian systems characterized by a reversible decrease in viscosity when shear is applied, followed by recovery when shear is removed. Which of the following viscometers can measure thixotropy?

A. Ostwald

B. Saybolt

C. Brookfield

D. Ubbelohde

A. One statement is correct

Rationale: The rest of the choices are Absorption

Evaluate the following statements about the classification of ointment bases:

I. Hydrophilic Ointment: Water-Washable

Il. Hydrophilic Petrolatum: Water-Removable

III. Hydrous Wool Fat: Water-Soluble 

IV. Hydrous Lanolin: Water-Removable

A. One statement is correct

B. Two statements are correct 

C. Three statements are correct

D. All statements are correct

D. The sieve number corresponds to the number of openings per linear inch of mesh, determining particle size classification.

In manufacturing pharmacy, powders are classified by sieve number. Which statement best explains what a sieve number represents?

A. The sieve number corresponds to the diameter of the wire used in the mesh, directly indicating powder porosity.

B. The sieve number corresponds to the percentage of powder retained after shaking, serving as a measure of flowability.

C. The sieve number corresponds to the total surface area of particles per gram, serving as a measure of fineness.

D. The sieve number corresponds to the number of openings per linear inch of mesh, determining particle size classification.

B. All particles pass through a No. 40 sieve, and not more than 40% pass through a No. 80 sieve

According to USP standards for powder fineness, which description best characterizes a moderately coarse powder?

A. All particles pass through a No. 8 sieve, and not more than 20% pass through a No. 60 sieve.

B. All particles pass through a No. 40 sieve, and not more than 40% pass through a No. 80 sieve

C. All particles pass through a No. 20 sieve, and not more than 40% pass through a No. 60 sieve.

D. All particles pass through a No. 60 sieve, and not more than 40% pass through a No. 100 sieve.

A. Dispersed phase, dispersion medium, suspending agent, stabilizers

Rationale: 

- Tablet - API, diluent or filler, binder, disintegrant, lubricant

- Capsule - API, gelatin, sugar, water

- Vaginal insert - API, filler, disintegrant, dispersing agent, lubricant

Which of the following correctly enumerates the basic components of a pharmaceutical suspension?

A. Dispersed phase, dispersion medium, suspending agent, stabilizers

B. Solvent, solute, buffer, preservative

C. Active drug, capsule shell, diluent, lubricant

D. Vehicle, binder, disintegrant, coating agent

A. They mask unpleasant taste and improve palatability.

Effervescent dosage forms are designed to release carbon dioxide upon contact with water. Which statement best describes their pharmaceutical advantage?

A. They mask unpleasant taste and improve palatability.

B. They increase drug stability during storage.

C. They reduce the dissolution rate of the drug.

D. They eliminate the need for flavoring agents.

B. Opacifier

Titanium dioxide is commonly used in pharmaceutical formulations. Its primary role is as:

A. Binder

B. Opacifier

C. Lubricant

D. Preservative

B. They melt, soften, or dissolve at body temperature to exert local or systemic effects.

Suppositories are solid dosage forms intended for insertion into body orifices. Which statement best explains their pharmaceutical use?

A. They act only locally and never systemically.

B. They melt, soften, or dissolve at body temperature to exert local or systemic effects.

C. They are exclusively used for pediatric patients.

D. They are designed to bypass hepatic metabolism completely.

C. Purified Water, USP

Rationale:

Methods: (DIoR)

- Distillation

- Ion-exchange

- Reverse Osmosis

Which pharmaceutical product requires its method of preparation to be indicated on the label?

A. Sterile Water for Injection, USP

B. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection, USP

C. Purified Water, USP

D. Milk of Magnesia

D. Amoxicillin

Which of the following is correctly classified as a pharmaceutical suspension?

A. Bentonite

B. Sodium chloride

C. Ethanol

D. Amoxicillin

A. It measures changes in electrical resistance as particles suspended in an electrolyte pass through a small aperture, allowing determination of particle size distribution.

Rationale:

- Coulter-counter - electrical resistance (resist si CoCo martin)

- HIAC-ROYCO - electrical blockages (pag may narinig kang nag HIAC! iblock mo)

The Coulter counter is an instrument used in particle size analysis. Which statement best describes its principle of operation?

A. It measures changes in electrical resistance as particles suspended in an electrolyte pass through a small aperture, allowing determination of particle size distribution.

B. It measures changes in light scattering as particles pass through a laser beam, providing information on particle shape and refractive index.

C. It measures changes in sedimentation rate of particles in a liquid medium, allowing calculation of particle density and porosity.

D. It measures changes in viscosity of suspensions as particle concentration increases, providing indirect estimates of particle size.

C. Oral Emulsion

Rationale:

- Oral solution - dissolve

- Oral suspension - suspended

- Oral emulsion - oil-in-water

- Oral drops - measuring device

- Syrup - large amts of sugar

- Linctus - higher conc. of sugar

Select the oral dosage forms which contains one or more active ingredients that are unstable in the water phase but stabilized in oil-in-water dispersions, either or both phases may contain dissolved solids:

A. Syrup

B. Elixir

C. Oral Emulsion

D. Oral Drops

A. Only Statement 1 is correct

Rationale: Upper punch is for compression

The die defines the size and shape of the tablet. Upper punches are responsible for ejection of the tablet.

A. Only Statement 1 is correct

B. Only Statement 2 is correct

C. Both statements are correct

D. None of the statements are correct

C. III, IV

Evaluate which statement/s about mottling is correct:

I. Usage of water-soluble dyes may help prevent mottling

II. Formation of strong hydrogen bonds between pigment particles prevents mottling

III. Mottling is the uneven distribution of color on the surface of a tablet

IV. Insoluble dyes prevent mottling by halting migration of dye particles

A. III

B. II, III

C. III, IV

D. I, II, III

C. II, III

Rationale:

- Process: Capping, Cracking, Lamination (CCrLa)

- Excipients: Sticking, Picking, Chipping (Stick-O, Picnic, Chippy)

Which of the following tablet defects is primarily attributed to excipients?

I. Capping

II. Chipping

III. Mottling

IV. Cracking

A. I, Il

B. II.IV

C. II, III

D. I, II, IV

D. Coloring

In the sugar coating of tablets, several steps are required. Which step is considered the most critical for successful production of a sugarcoated product?

A. Waterproofing

B. Subcoating

C. Smoothing

D. Coloring

C. no longer than 14 days

Rationale: 2big = 2 weeks

According to USP guidelines, what is the beyond-use date for water-containing oral preparations stored under cold temperatures when compounded extemporaneously?

A. no longer than 30 days

C. no longer than 14 days

B. no longer than 7 days

D. no longer than 24 hours

B. Calcium Stearate

During tablet compression, certain excipients are added to reduce friction. Which excipient is most useful for this purpose?

A. Colloidal Silica

B. Calcium Stearate

C. Carboxymethylcellulose

D. Carnauba Wax

B. Only Statement 2 is correct

Rationale:

- Impact - Hammer and Vibration

- Compression - End-runner edge (compress kayo from end to edge)

- Attrition - Roller

- Attrition + Impact - Ball

Pharmaceutical size-reduction equipment operates on different mechanical principles.

Statement 1: Roller mill works on the principle of impact and attrition.

Statement 2: End-runner mill works on the principle of compression.

A. Only Statement 1 is correct

B. Only Statement 2 is correct

C. Both statements are correct

D. None of the statements are correct

C. Type I results from over-drying during the coating process while Type II results from excessive moisture uptake during storage.

Rationale: Type 1 - 1nit, Type 2 - 2big

Which statement correctly differentiates Type I vs Type II film cracking?

A. Type I is due to improper plasticizer selection while Type Il is due to inadequate coating thickness.

B. Type I occurs because of high compression force, Type II occurs because of low compression force.

C. Type I results from over-drying during the coating process while Type II results from excessive moisture uptake during storage.

D. Type I is caused by uneven color distribution,  Type Il is caused by poor adhesion of the coating.

B. Coalescence

During stability testing of an oil-in-water emulsion, the quality control team observed that several droplets lost their protective film and fused into larger droplets, leading to irreversible phase separation.

This defect is best identified as:

A. Flocculation

B. Coalescence

C. Creaming

D. Sedimentation

D. Sufficient activity to be outside USP monograph requirements

If a product states, "Expires NOV 2019", this means by that date, the product may have lost:

A. Up to 10% of its activity

B. Quality thus rendering it as unfit for consumption

C. Required amount to reflect its stated bioavailability

D. Sufficient activity to be outside USP monograph requirements

D. Neither statement is correct

Rationale:

- Butylated hydroxyanisole not aniline

- Ascorbic acid is a reducing agent

True antioxidants such as butylated hydroxyaniline (BHA) act by reacting directly with reactive oxygen species (ROS). Antioxidant synergists such as ascorbic acid act by chelating trace metals that catalyze oxidation. Which statement is correct?

A. Both statements are correct

B. Only the first statement is correct

C. Only the second statement is correct

D. Neither statement is correct

B. Hardness

Rationale: Friability - if a maintaining proper tablet hardness

Maintaining proper tablet weight is essential for controlling which defect?

A. Friability

B. Hardness

C. Mottling

D. Picking

A. Stearyl Alcohol (HMW alcohol)

Which category of emulsifiers or stabilizers is primarily used as thickening agents and stabilizers for oil-in-water emulsions in lotions and ointments for external use?

A. Stearyl Alcohol

B. Ethyl Alcohol

C. Sorbitol

D. Methanol

C. Only the second statement is correct

According to USP standards, a single-dose container such as a prefilled syringe has a maximum volume of 30 mL. Meanwhile, multiple-dose containers such as vials, due to addition of preservatives, have a maximum volume of 100 mL. Which statement is correct?

A. Both statements are correct

B. Only the first statement is correct

C. Only the second statement is correct

D. Neither statement is correct

A. BCS Class I

Which BCS class behaves like an oral solution, showing fast dissolution and rapid bioavailability, where gastric emptying is the rate-limiting step?

A. BCS Class I

B. BCS Class II 

C. BCS Class III

D. BCS Class IV

A. I

Rationale: vaGina = Glycerinated gelatin

Pessaries

I. Also called vaginal suppositories, globular or oviform in shape.

II. Usually made of cocoa butter and weigh about 5 g.

III. Typically measure 70 mm in length.

A. I

B. II, III

C. I, III

D. I, II, III

D. Infusion

Rationale:

- Digestion - gentle heat

- Decoction - boiling water

- Maceration - to soak

Extraction by macerating the crude drug in cold or boiling water for a short time:

A. Digestion

B. Decoction

C. Maceration

D. Infusion

B. Only the second statement is correct

Lozenges are designed for immediate local absorption via the gastrointestinal tract. A well-known example is Dichlorobenzyl Alcohol + Amylmetacresol.

A. Only the first statement is correct

B. Only the second statement is correct

C. Both statements are correct

D. None of the statements are correct

C. No, the compounded product is an elixir and should be labeled as such

A compounding pharmacist prepares a clear, sweetened hydroalcoholic solution of diphenhydramine. The product is labeled "syrup." Did the pharmacist label it correctly?

A. Yes, a clear, sweetened hydroalcoholic solution is called a syrup

B. No, it should be labeled as linctus because it is hydroalcoholic

C. No, the compounded product is an elixir and should be labeled as such

D. Yes, syrups are sweet dosage forms and are aqueous

D. None of the statements are correct

Rationale:

- Type A - acid (porcine)

- Type B - base/alkaline (bovine)

Gelatin from bovine skin produced from acidic treatment is known as type B gelatin while porcine skin gelatin produced from alkaline treatment is known as type A gelatin. They possess the same characteristics which is why a manufacturer can use gelatin A as an alternative to gelatin B.

A. Only the first statement is correct

B. Only the second statement is correct

C. Both statements are correct

D. None of the statements are correct

C. Pharmaceutically dispersed system that is a low viscosity liquid preparation intended for application to the skin

Which of the following correctly describes lotion?

A. Pharmaceutically dispersed system that is a high viscosity liquid preparation intended for application to the skin

B. Pharmaceutically dispersed system that is a low viscosity solid preparation intended for application to the skin

C. Pharmaceutically dispersed system that is a low viscosity liquid preparation intended for application to the skin

D. Pharmaceutically dispersed system that is a low viscosity liquid preparation intended for injection to the skin

D. HNO3+ H2SO4

Pyroxylin is produced by treating cotton with which combination of acids?

A. CH3 COOH + H2SO4

B. HCI + HNO3

C. H2SO4 + HCI

D. HNO3+ H2SO4

A. I, V

The thickness of a tablet is influenced by the following factors, except:

I. Shape of the punches

Il. Diameter of the die

III. Amount of fill entering the cavity 

IV. Pressure applied during compression

V. Insensitivity of the cam tracks

A. I, V

B. III, V

C. II, III, IV

D. I, II, III, IV

A. 40%

How much glycerin is contained in a glycerogelatin preparation?

A. 40%

B. 15%

C. 35%

D. 10%

C. II

Rationale:

- 3:1 mixture of ether-alcohol

- 3% of castor oil for the flexibility of a collodion

- 2% camphor to render it waterproof

Which of the following statements about collodions are true?

I. It is prepared by dissolving pyroxylin (4% w/v) in a 2:3 mixture of ether and alcohol

Il. It is a highly volatile and flammable solution which is intended for external use only

III. The flexibility of a collodion is mainly attributed to the addition of 2% castor oil

IV. 3% camphor is added to render a collodion waterproof

A. I, Il

B. II, IV

C. II

D. I, II, Ill

A. Clathrates

A drug is stabilized by being trapped within a crystalline lattice of another compound, without covalent bonding, forming a cage-like structure. Which of the following is being defined?

A. Clathrates

C. Co-Crystals

B. Chelates

D. Monomolecular

D. None of the statements are correct

Rationale:

- Controlled-release dosage forms - zero-order kinetics (Coke ZERO)

- Sustained-release - first-order kinetics

Controlled-release dosage forms is a type of extended-release that follows first-order kinetics. Sustained-release follows zero-order kinetics through an initial release then followed by a gradual extended release.

A. Only the first statement is correct

B. Only the second statement is correct

C. Both statements are correct

D. None of the statements are correct

B. I,IV

Dry granulation is used for ingredients that are sensitive to moisture or cannot withstand high temperatures during drying. Which of the following drugs usually undergo dry granulation?

I. Vitamin B1

II. Metformin

III. APAP

IV. ASA

A. I, Il

B. I,IV

C. II. III, IV

D. I, II, III, IV

C. Both statements are correct

In coordination chemistry, ligands interact with central metal ions.

Ligands donate electron pairs to the central metal ion, acting as Lewis bases.

A. Only the first statement is correct

B. Only the second statement is correct

C. Both statements are correct

D. None of the statements are correct

B. Ammonia, because it donates electron pairs to cobalt.

In the complex [Co(NH3)6]Cl3, which component acts as the ligand?

A. Cobalt, because it is the central metal ion.

B. Ammonia, because it donates electron pairs to cobalt.

C. Chloride, because it balances charge outside the coordination sphere.

D. Both cobalt and ammonia act as ligands simultaneously.

A. Ethylenediamine is a bidentate ligand because it has two donor nitrogen atoms that can coordinate simultaneously to a central metal ion.

Which statement best describes ethylenediamine (en) in coordination chemistry?

A. Ethylenediamine is a bidentate ligand because it has two donor nitrogen atoms that can coordinate simultaneously to a central metal ion.

B. Ethylenediamine is a monodentate ligand because only one nitrogen atom can donate electrons at a time

C. Ethylenediamine is a hexadentate ligand with six donor sites available for coordination.

D. Ethylenediamine is a counter-ion that balances charge but does not donate electrons.

A. One statement is correct (IV)

Suspensions may be classified as flocculated or deflocculated depending on particle interactions. Which of the following statements correctly describe a deflocculated suspension?

I. particles exist in loose aggregates

Il. rapid sedimentation rate

III. easily redispersable sediment

IV. pharmaceutically elegant

A. One statement is correct

B. Two statements are correct

C. Three statements are correct

D. All statements are correct

C. Pectin

During formulation of a wound-healing gel, the pharmacist must select a carbohydrate-based emulsifying agent that can form a hydrophilic colloid. The options available in the formulary include the following. Which excipient is correctly identified as a carbohydrate emu sifying agent?

A. Bentonite

B. Carbowax

C. Pectin

D. Silica

B. Only the second statement is correct

Rationale: Forbes method is low viscosity

Forbes method is useful for volatile oils and oils of high viscosity. The English method uses the same composition 4:2:1 (oil: water: gum) as continental method. Which option is correct?

A. Only the first statement is correct

B. Only the second statement is correct

C. Both statements are correct

D. None of the statements are correct

B. 3,2,1

Arrange the following surfactants in order of antimicrobial effectiveness, from most effective to least effective: (1) soap; (2) anionic detergent; (3) cationic detergent

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 3,2,1

C. 2, 3, 1

D. 3,1,2

D. Collapsible Tube

Which container is most appropriate tor dispensing an ophthalmic ointment to ensure sterility and patient convenience?

A. Glass Jar

B. Plastic Bottle

C. Metal Can

D. Collapsible Tube

C. 40-60 mEq

Rationale: 

- Phosphate - 4sphate (40-60)

- Potassium - po8assium (80-120)

In total parenteral nutrition (TPN) formulations, phosphate is added to meet metabolic requirements. What is the recommended concentration range of phosphate in TPN preparations?

A. 100-120 mEq

B. 80-120 mEq

C. 40-60 mEq

D. 8-16 mEg

B. Two statements are correct  (II, III)

Invert sugar injection has specific pharmaceutical applications. Which of the following correctly describe its uses?

I. Electrolyte Balance 

II. Fluid Replacement 

III. Basic Nutrition

IV. Vehicle

A. One statement is correct

B. Two statements are correct 

C. Three statements are correct

D. All statements are correct

D. Lytic action on membranes

Rationale: Mercurials - denaturation of enzymes thru combi. with THIOL groups

Benzalkonium chloride is commonly used as a preservative in ophthalmic solutions. What could be its most probable mechanism of action?

A. Denaturation of proteins

B. Denaturation of enzymes through combination with thiol groups

C. Oxidation of enzymes

D. Lytic action on membranes

C. Disinfection

Rationale:

- disINfection - INanimate objects

- Sterilization - both vegetative and Spores 

- asepsis - living tissues

- decontamination - neutralize to safety

Which term describes the process of destroying vegetative microorganisms on inanimate objects?

A. Sterilization

B. Asepsis

C. Disinfection

D. Decontamination

B. I, Ill

Which of the following are characteristics of enteric-coated tablets?

I. Have delayed-release features

II. The coating systems used should only be aqueous-based and not organic solvent-based to resist the breakdown in gastric fluids

III. Are intended to pass through the stomach intact to disintegrate and release their drug content or absorption along the intestine

A. I

B. I, Ill

C. III

D. I, II, III

C. Physical

Rationale:

- Blending - flavors blend to the drug

- Overshadowing - masks the taste 

- Physical - insoluble compounds

 - Chemical - substrate absorption

- Physiological - anesthetize the taste buds

A bitter drug is being formulated into a pediatric suspension. Sosa RPh considers different flavoring techniques. One approach involves forming insoluble compounds with the drug to reduce its unpleasant taste. Which methodology is described?

A. Blending

B. Overshadowing

C. Physical

D. Chemical

C. Transderm-Scop®

Rationale:

- Catapres - for HTN

- Nicotine - for smoking cessation

- Nitroglycerin - for anginal attack

A patient with motion sickness is prescribed a transdermal patch. Tersta RPh recalls that the first FDA-approved transdermal drug delivery system (TDDS) was introduced in 1979. Which drug was used in this pioneering patch?

A. Nitrodur®

B. Nicoderm®

C. Transderm-Scop®

D. Catapres®

C.I. II. IV

During resuscitation, a patient is infused with Hartmann's solution. The physician explains that the solution contains electrolytes and an alkalinizing agent. Which of the following correctly represents its composition?

I. Sodium chloride

Il. Sodium lactate

IlI. Sodium bicarbonate

IV. Calcium chloride

A. I. II, III, IV

B. I, II, III

C.I. II. IV

D. I, III, IV

D. Meralco, Supreme Court, Philippine Airlines

Pharmacy practice can be classified into different settings.

Which of the following pharmacies fit the definition of an institutional pharmacy?

A. Mercury Drug, Watsons, SSD

B. Food and Drug Administration

C. E.L. Laboratories, Unilab, Hizon

D. Meralco, Supreme Court, Philippine Airlines

A. Level 6

In the new Philippine Qualifications Framework, how is a graduate of BS pharmacy classified?

A. Level 6

B. Level 4

C. Level 2

D. Level 8

B. Director General

In the Philippines, the head of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is officially called:

A. Commissioner

C. Secretary

B. Director General

D. Administrator

C. OTC

These are drug products than can be sold directly to the public without a prescription

A. Ethical

B. Generic

C. OTC

D. Branded

B. A.O. 2024-0017

Which of the following laws remove the requirement for seniors to present a purchase booklet to drugstores to avail themselves of the 20-percent discount on medicines on top of the 12-percent value-added tax exemption?

A. A.O. 2024-0010

B. A.O. 2024-0017

C. A.O. 2024-0009

D. A.O. 2024-0016

D. 2 years

How many years must pass before a revoked Certificate of Registration (COR) can be reinstated upon petition by the Board of Pharmacy?

A. 8 years

C. 4 years

B. 6 years

D. 2 years

C. Twenty

According to RA 9994 (Expanded Senior Citizens Act), senior citizens are entitled to what percentage discount when buying medicines?

A. Forty

B. Thirty

C. Twenty

D. Ten

A. Declaration of Alma Ata

Rationale:

- WHO - highest declaration of health

- FDA - drugs

- DOH - Filipinos, healthiest among SE Asians

Which of the following emphasized primary health care as the key to achieving "Health for All"?

A. Declaration of Alma Ata

B. WHO Constitution

C. FDA Act of 2009

D. Department of Health

B. PDEA is the implementing arm; DDB is the policy-making and strategy-formulating body.

Rationale: RA 6675 - monitoring arm (DOH), implementing arm (FDA)

In the Philippines, drug regulation involves multiple agencies.Which statement correctly differentiates the Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA) from the Dangerous Drugs Board (DDB)?

A. PDEA is the policy-making body; DDB is the implementing arm.

B. PDEA is the implementing arm; DDB is the policy-making and strategy-formulating body.

C. Both PDEA and DDB are policymaking bodies.

D. Both PDEA and DDB are implementing arms.

B. Laboratory analysis and technical research involving dangerous drugs

Rationale: salik6

Pharmaceutical establishments in the Philippines require specific licenses depending on their activities. An S6 license is specifically required for:

A. Retail sale of prescription medicines

B. Laboratory analysis and technical research involving dangerous drugs

C. Wholesale distribution of generic medicines

D. Importation of medical devices

C. 300

A BS Pharmacy student is completing the required internship rotations. During her training, she spends time in a tertiary hospital assisting with medication dispensing, patient counseling, and ward stock management. According to CHED, how many minimum internship hours must be completed in the hospital pharmacy setting?

A. 150

B. 200

C. 300

D. 500

D. Pharmacovigilance

A patient develops Stevens-Johnson Syndrome after taking carbamazepine. The pharmacist reports this to the FDA. Which type of activity does this represent?

A. Pharmacoeconomics

B. Pharmacoepidemiology 

C. Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence

D. Pharmacovigilance

B. Refuse to dispense and advise the physician to provide the S2 license number.

A community pharmacist discovers that a prescription for morphine sulfate lacks the required S2 license number of the prescribing physician.

What is the pharmacist's most appropriate action under RA 9165?

A. Dispense the medicine since morphine is a valid prescription drug.

B. Refuse to dispense and advise the physician to provide the S2 license number.

C. Follow up to the physician for his/her S2 license number and dispense only half the prescribed quantity.

D. Record the transaction in the Dangerous Drugs Book and dispense.

C. RA 11036

Rationale:

• RA 11223 - Universal healthcare act

• RA 10028 - Expanded breastfeeding promotion act

• RA 10918 - Philippine pharmacy act

It ensures access to services, protection against discrimination, and integration of mental health into the general health system.

A. RA 11223

B. RA 10028

C. RA 11036

D. RA 10918

D. Veracity

Pharmacist X tells a patient that a certain brand of vitamins is "clinically proven to be superior." even though no such evidence exists. Which ethical principle is most directly violated?

A. Beneficence

B. Non-Maleficence

C. Autonomy

D. Veracity