Radiation Safety Board Practice Questions

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Last updated 3:52 PM on 10/15/26
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615 Terms

1
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Which pair of features defines a deterministic effect?

A threshold dose, with severity rising above it

2
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For a stochastic effect, what increases as the dose increases?

The chance that it occurs

3
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Two weeks after a long fluoroscopically guided procedure, a patient develops reddening of the skin at the beam entry site. How is this effect classified?

Deterministic

4
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Which of the following is an example of a stochastic effect?

Leukemia

5
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Two workers develop radiation-induced thyroid cancer; one had received three times the dose of the other. How does the severity of the two cancers compare?

Severity does not depend on dose

6
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A physician who never wore leaded eyewear during years of fluoroscopy develops lens opacities. Which description fits this effect?

Deterministic, with a threshold

7
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Which pairing of effect and classification is correct?

Cataract – deterministic

8
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A worker loses scalp hair after a large localized dose, and a coworker with a smaller dose to the same area loses none. Which concept best explains the difference?

Only one dose crossed the threshold

9
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Which dose-response model is used for stochastic effects and as the basis of radiation protection policy?

Linear, no-threshold

10
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A dose-response graph shows no response at low doses, then an S-shaped rise once a certain dose is passed. Which effect does this curve best describe?

Cataract formation

11
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A coworker skips a syringe shield, saying the small extra hand dose is harmless because it is below any threshold. Which concept contradicts this reasoning?

The LNT model assigns risk to any dose

12
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A dose-response curve passes through the origin and rises as a straight line with dose. Which type of effect is it modeling?

Stochastic (linear no-threshold)

13
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Acute radiation effects typically result from which pattern of exposure?

A high dose delivered over a short time

14
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A worker develops a cataract eight years after an eye exposure. How is this effect classified on both axes?

Deterministic and late (chronic)

15
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Which statement correctly relates the acute/chronic and deterministic/stochastic classifications?

They are separate; acute effects are usually deterministic

16
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A technologist accumulates small occupational doses over a 30-year career. Which effect is of greatest concern from this pattern?

Delayed cancer

17
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Which of the following is an acute radiation effect?

Acute radiation syndrome

18
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Which radiation-induced cancer has the shortest latency period?

Leukemia

19
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Survivors of a radiation accident are enrolled in long-term follow-up for solid tumors. Over roughly what latency would a radiation-induced solid tumor typically appear?

10–20 or more years

20
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A worker diagnosed with lung cancer 15 years after a minor spill asks whether the spill caused it. Why is this hard to establish?

The risk is probabilistic and delayed

21
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A radiation accident survivor develops leukemia three years after exposure. How does this timing compare with typical latency?

It fits leukemia's short 2–5 year latency

22
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Most human radiation cancer-risk estimates are built largely on data from which source?

Atomic bomb survivors

23
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Carcinogenesis is the prototype of which kind of radiation effect?

Stochastic

24
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List the acute radiation syndromes in order of increasing dose threshold.

Hemopoietic, GI, CNS

25
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Approximately what acute whole-body dose range produces the hemopoietic syndrome?

About 1–10 Gy

26
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An accident victim receives an estimated 25 Gy whole-body dose and develops severe diarrhea and fluid and electrolyte loss. Which syndrome is present?

Gastrointestinal

27
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A victim of a criticality accident with an estimated whole-body dose above 50 Gy becomes confused and collapses within hours. Which syndrome is this?

Cerebrovascular (CNS)

28
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Which acute radiation syndrome is potentially survivable with medical treatment?

Hemopoietic

29
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What is the correct order of the stages of acute radiation syndrome?

Prodromal, latent, manifest illness, recovery or death

30
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An exposed worker vomits a few hours after an accident, then feels well for about two weeks before blood counts fall. What is the symptom-free interval called?

Latent stage

31
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What is the approximate LD50 for humans exposed to an acute whole-body dose without treatment?

About 3.5–4 Gy

32
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Responders estimate one untreated victim's whole-body dose at about 4 Gy. Which outcome is expected for a group at this dose?

Roughly half would die without treatment

33
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Why does the hemopoietic syndrome appear at lower doses than the CNS syndrome?

Marrow stem cells divide rapidly

34
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Genetic (heritable) radiation effects result from damage to which cells?

Germ cells

35
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A man receives a significant gonadal dose, and years later his child is born with a mutation attributed to that exposure. How is this effect classified?

Genetic and stochastic

36
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A woman's 6-week pregnancy is irradiated during an abdominal CT. How is any resulting effect on the embryo classified?

In-utero (embryo) effect

37
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Somatic effects differ from genetic effects because somatic effects:

Affect only the exposed person

38
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The doubling dose is defined as the dose that:

Doubles the natural mutation rate

39
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What is the approximate doubling dose for heritable mutations in humans?

About 1 Gy

40
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Which statement about heritable radiation effects in humans is most accurate?

Hard to show, yet still built into limits

41
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Why are patient diagnostic doses not capped by the occupational dose limits?

The exposure is benefit-justified

42
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Before a PET/CT, a patient worries the scan will push her past the 50 mSv annual dose limit she read about. Which response is accurate?

That limit is for workers, not patients

43
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A technologist has her own myocardial perfusion study with Tc-99m sestamibi. How is this dose handled for occupational records?

It is excluded from her occupational dose

44
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For patients, the ALARA principle is best described as:

Optimizing dose while keeping diagnostic quality

45
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A technologist wears a dosimetry badge while the patient does not. What is the main reason?

Staff dose is cumulative and regulated

46
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According to the law of Bergonié and Tribondeau, cells are most radiosensitive when they are:

Dividing often, undifferentiated, with a long mitotic future

47
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Which cell is generally considered the most radiosensitive in the body?

Lymphocyte

48
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Which tissue is the most radioresistant?

Adult nerve tissue

49
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After an accidental whole-body exposure, serial blood counts are drawn. Which cell count is expected to fall first?

Lymphocytes

50
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Which list is ordered from most to least radiosensitive?

Lymphocytes, skin basal cells, adult neurons

51
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Why can radiation therapy destroy a tumor while sparing much of the surrounding normal tissue?

Tumor cells divide more rapidly

52
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A patient receives incidental dose to the adult brain during a procedure. Why is this tissue relatively radioresistant?

Mature neurons rarely divide

53
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A worker receives a moderate whole-body dose. Which tissue is expected to show damage at the lowest dose?

Intestinal crypt cells

54
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A man's testes receive a significant dose. Which cells are most radiosensitive?

Spermatogonia

55
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A patient's skin receives a high dose. Which skin layer is most radiosensitive?

Basal layer

56
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Mature bone and skeletal muscle are radioresistant mainly because their cells are:

Differentiated, with slow turnover

57
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Linear energy transfer (LET) describes:

Energy deposited per unit path length

58
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In what units is LET usually expressed?

keV/µm

59
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Which ranking lists radiation from highest to lowest LET?

Alpha, neutron, proton, beta, gamma

60
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An alpha particle and a beta particle deliver the same absorbed dose to tissue. Which does more biological damage?

Alpha, because of its higher LET

61
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Compared with low-LET radiation, high-LET radiation produces:

Dense damage over a short track

62
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What reference radiation is typically used when determining RBE?

250 kVp x-rays

63
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Relative biological effectiveness (RBE) is calculated as:

Reference dose ÷ test dose, same effect

64
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In a cell study, a test radiation produces the same cell kill as 250 kVp x-rays with only one-fifth the dose. What does this indicate?

Its RBE is about 5

65
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What is the approximate RBE of alpha particles?

About 20

66
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Which radiation type has an approximate RBE of 10?

Neutrons

67
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Ra-223 kills bone metastases while largely sparing nearby marrow. Which property explains this?

High LET with a very short range

68
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An alpha-emitting source is handled in the hot lab. Which hazard is of greatest concern?

Internal contamination by intake

69
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Which statement about LET and RBE is correct?

As LET rises, RBE generally rises

70
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A technologist handles Tc-99m and administers I-131. What radiation weighting factor (wR) applies to both the gamma and the beta radiation?

1

71
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Why is the embryo or fetus so radiosensitive?

Its cells divide rapidly and are undifferentiated

72
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A patient learns she was about 10 days past conception when she had a bone scan. Which risk best applies to exposure at that stage?

All-or-nothing

73
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During which gestational period is the risk of congenital malformations greatest?

2–8 weeks (organogenesis)

74
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A pregnant patient was inadvertently exposed at 11 weeks of gestation. Which risk is most associated with this stage?

CNS effects and severe intellectual disability

75
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An exposure occurs at 30 weeks of gestation. Which statement best describes the risk?

Growth restriction, with lower overall risk

76
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Exposure during the pre-implantation stage (0–2 weeks) most often results in:

Loss of pregnancy or no lasting effect

77
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A technologist declares her pregnancy during her third month. Over what period does the 5 mSv (0.5 rem) embryo/fetus limit apply?

The entire pregnancy

78
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A technologist who has just declared her pregnancy is issued a second dosimeter for the fetus. Where should it be worn?

At waist level

79
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A 28-year-old woman scheduled for an elective gallium scan mentions that her period is late. What is the best action?

Hold the study and notify the physician

80
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The critical organ for a radiopharmaceutical is the organ that:

Receives the highest significant dose

81
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The target organ for a radiopharmaceutical is the organ that:

The study aims to image or treat

82
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A patient receives Sr-89 chloride for painful bone metastases. Which organ is the critical organ?

Red marrow

83
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A patient has a Tc-99m DTPA renal scan. Which organ is typically the critical organ for this renally excreted agent?

Bladder wall

84
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A patient receives I-131 sodium iodide for hyperthyroidism. How do the critical and target organs relate?

The thyroid is both

85
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After a Tc-99m MAG3 renal study, what instruction best reduces the patient's bladder wall dose?

Drink fluids and void often

86
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A 4-year-old and an adult receive the same dose to the same organ. Why is the child at greater risk?

More of their cells are actively dividing

87
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Which statement about critical and target organs is correct?

They may be the same or different

88
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The quantity called exposure measures:

Ionization in air

89
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Which is the traditional unit of exposure?

Roentgen

90
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What is the SI unit of exposure?

C/kg

91
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Which pair are the SI and traditional units of absorbed dose?

Gray and rad

92
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A dosimetry report lists 2 Gy to the red marrow. What quantity is being reported?

Absorbed dose

93
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Absorbed dose describes:

Energy deposited per unit mass

94
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An older dosimetry report lists a marrow dose of 300 rad. What is this dose in gray?

3 Gy

95
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The sievert is the SI unit for which quantities?

Dose equivalent and effective dose

96
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Which unit is the traditional unit of dose equivalent?

Rem

97
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Dose equivalent is obtained by multiplying absorbed dose by:

The radiation weighting factor

98
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Effective dose differs from dose equivalent because it also accounts for:

Which organs were exposed

99
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Two organs receive the same dose equivalent, yet they contribute differently to the effective dose. What explains this?

Different tissue weighting factors

100
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The radiation weighting factor (wR) is essentially a standardized form of:

RBE