11 application case & what if questions

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162 Terms

1
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A student falls and fractures the scaphoid. Which region is injured, and is the bone axial or appendicular?

Wrist (carpal); appendicular. The scaphoid is a carpal bone, not part of the arm

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A knife wound is in the area of the ascending colon. Which abdominal region?

Right lumbar. The ascending colon sits in the right middle row of the 9-region grid

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A patient has jaundice (yellow skin) and liver pain. Which abdominal region would you palpate?

Right hypochondriac. The liver sits below the right ribs

4
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A patient stands in anatomical position and turns the left palm to face backward. What movement?

Pronation. In anatomical position the palm faces forward; turning it posteriorly is pronation

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A physiotherapist says "invert your foot." Which way does the sole turn?

Toward the midline. Inversion = sole tilts medially; eversion = away

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An MRI shows the brain cut into top and bottom halves. Which plane?

Transverse (axial)

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An MRI shows a cut down the exact midline, separating left and right halves equally. Which plane?

Midsagittal (median)

8
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Describe a mid-shaft ulna fracture relative to the radius

Medial. The ulna is on the pinky (medial) side of the forearm

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A patient's body temperature rises while hiking. What is the stimulus, control centre and effector?

Stimulus = temperature above 37°C; control centre (and receptor) = hypothalamus; effectors = sweat glands, dilating skin blood vessels

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A person is very cold. Name two effectors and what they do

Skin blood vessels constrict (conserve heat); skeletal muscles shiver (make heat). The thyroid also raises metabolism

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The thyroid gland is pinned at a station. What is its role in temperature homeostasis?

Effector. It releases thyroid hormone (T3/T4) to raise metabolic rate

12
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A hypothalamic lesion prevents temperature control. Which feedback components are damaged?

Receptor and control centre. The hypothalamus is both

13
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A type 1 diabetic can't produce insulin. Which component of the glucose loop is affected?

The pancreas (detector + control centre) can't send its signal (insulin); blood glucose stays high

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After a big carb meal, the pancreas releases insulin. Is this positive or negative feedback?

Negative. Insulin brings high blood glucose back down

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Na+ entry opens more Na+ channels, letting more Na+ in. What feedback type?

Positive feedback (action potential)

16
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In a patient with no platelets, which part of the clotting loop still exists?

The stimulus (the broken vessel). Platelets are the detector, control centre and effector

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What ends the positive feedback loop of labour?

Birth (parturition) removes the cervical stretch stimulus

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Lactation: what is the effector?

Breast myoepithelial cells (contract to eject milk in response to oxytocin)

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A patient reports nausea; the nurse measures a fever. Which is the sign and which is the symptom?

Fever = sign (objective, measured); nausea = symptom (subjective, reported)

20
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A drug blocks Na+ leak channels. What happens to the resting membrane potential?

Becomes more negative. Less positive Na+ leaks in

21
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A mutant Na+/K+ pump moves 2 Na+ out and 4 K+ in. Effect on the membrane?

Depolarizes (more positive). More positive charge now enters than leaves

22
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A drug blocks voltage-gated K+ channels. Which AP phase is NOT affected?

Depolarization. That phase depends on voltage-gated Na+ channels

23
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A drug blocks voltage-gated K+ channels. Which phases ARE affected?

Repolarization, hyperpolarization and the relative refractory period

24
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A toxin blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels on the axon. What happens?

No action potential can be generated or propagated

25
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A neuron receives two small EPSPs a few milliseconds apart at the same spot. What can happen?

Temporal summation. If they reach threshold (~-55 mV) at the axon hillock, an AP fires

26
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A neuron gets more excitatory than inhibitory input, but stays below threshold. Result?

An EPSP (depolarized) but no action potential

27
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A second stimulus arrives during repolarization. Can a new AP fire?

No. This is the absolute refractory period

28
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A strong stimulus arrives during the hyperpolarization phase. Can a new AP fire?

Yes, but it's harder. This is the relative refractory period

29
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How does the nervous system signal "this pain is stronger"?

Higher AP frequency. AP amplitude is always the same (all-or-nothing)

30
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In Lambert-Eaton syndrome, presynaptic voltage-gated Ca2+ channels don't work. What fails?

Neurotransmitter release. Ca2+ influx triggers vesicle fusion

31
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A patient takes an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. What happens to ACh in the synapse?

ACh increases (not broken down) → more neurotransmission

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A patient takes atropine. What happens to cholinergic neurotransmission?

Decreases. Atropine blocks ACh (muscarinic) receptors

33
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A patient takes fluoxetine (SSRI). What happens?

Serotonin reuptake blocked → more serotonin stays in the synapse

34
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A patient takes an MAO inhibitor. Which NT is NOT affected?

Acetylcholine. MAO breaks down catecholamines (and serotonin), not ACh

35
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Someone grabs a live AC wire and can't let go. What's happening and why?

Tetany (death grip). Forearm flexors are stronger than extensors

36
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Why can't an AP travel backwards up the axon?

The membrane behind it is in its refractory period

37
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Why is the heart able to contract as one synchronized unit?

Electrical synapses (gap junctions) between cardiac cells

38
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A patient has expressive aphasia (knows what to say but can't produce speech). Which area and lobe?

Broca's area, frontal lobe

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A stroke patient speaks fluently but makes no sense and can't understand speech. Which area?

Wernicke's area (posterior superior temporal gyrus, temporal lobe)

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After an injury, a patient's personality and problem solving change. Which lobe?

Frontal lobe

41
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A lesion of the left precentral gyrus causes what?

Weakness/paralysis on the RIGHT side of the body. Motor cortex controls the opposite side

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A lesion of the right postcentral gyrus causes what?

Loss of touch sensation on the LEFT side of the body

43
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A patient with MS has slowed reactions. Is the problem conduction or transmission, and why doesn't it heal?

Conduction. CNS oligodendrocytes don't regenerate, and one lost oligodendrocyte affects many axons

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Why do most Guillain-Barré patients recover within weeks?

PNS Schwann cells dedifferentiate, multiply and remyelinate axons

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A lesion cuts the corpus callosum. What fibre type, and what is impaired?

Commissural fibres; communication/coordination between hemispheres

46
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The fornix is pinned. What fibre type is it?

Association fibre (connects areas within one hemisphere)

47
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Which fibre type is the internal capsule, and what does it carry?

Projection fibres; motor and sensory info between cortex and brainstem/spinal cord

48
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Damage around the lateral ventricles causes memory loss and emotional changes. Which system?

Limbic system

49
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Damage lateral to the ventricles causes trouble with basic movement. Which structures?

Basal nuclei (caudate, putamen, globus pallidus)

50
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A specimen shows white matter. What gives it its colour and which CNS cell makes it?

Myelin; oligodendrocytes

51
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Why does touch travel faster than dull, aching pain?

Touch uses large myelinated A-beta fibres; dull pain uses small unmyelinated C fibres

52
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A specimen under the microscope shows branched, striated cells. What muscle?

Cardiac muscle

53
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During contraction, which sarcomere parts shorten and which stays the same?

H zone and I band shorten; A band stays the same

54
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Why does rigor mortis occur?

No ATP after death, so myosin can't detach from actin

55
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A drug prevents Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. What happens?

No contraction. Ca2+ is needed to bind troponin and move tropomyosin off the binding sites

56
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What lets an AP reach the deep myofibrils of a large muscle fibre?

T-tubules

57
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A bodybuilder's biceps get bigger. Did the number of fibres increase?

No. Each fibre gains more myofibrils/sarcomeres (hypertrophy)

58
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A leg cast is removed after 6 weeks and the calf is smaller. Term?

Atrophy (from immobilization)

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Why is maximum tetanic force 3-5x greater than a single twitch?

Repeated APs let Ca2+ build up, so more cross-bridges form

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A marathon runner relies mostly on which fibre type?

Slow oxidative (fatigue resistant, aerobic)

61
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During a heavy squat, which fibres are recruited last?

Fast glycolytic (largest; size principle)

62
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Why does a muscle produce less force when overstretched?

Too little actin-myosin overlap, so too few cross-bridges

63
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A hockey player is hit at the side of the head over the pterion. Which vessel and which bleed?

Middle meningeal artery → epidural hematoma

64
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An older patient after a fall has a slow venous bleed. Which space?

Subdural space (bridging veins / venous sinus)

65
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A ruptured cerebral artery aneurysm bleeds into which space?

Subarachnoid space

66
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A stroke causes numbness in the LEFT hip and leg. Which artery?

Right anterior cerebral artery (supplies the medial cortex/lower limb area)

67
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A stroke causes weakness of the RIGHT face and arm, plus language problems. Which artery?

Left middle cerebral artery

68
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A stroke causes loss of the LEFT visual field. Which artery?

Right posterior cerebral artery (occipital lobe)

69
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Why doesn't the circle of Willis prevent a stroke from a clot in the middle cerebral artery?

The circle only protects before it; terminal cerebral arteries have no anastomoses

70
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A clot blocks a cerebral artery. Stroke type and treatment?

Ischemic; anticoagulants

71
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A cerebral vessel ruptures. Stroke type and treatment?

Hemorrhagic; stop the bleed (anticoagulants would worsen it)

72
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MRI: lateral and 3rd ventricles enlarged, 4th ventricle normal. Where is the blockage?

Cerebral aqueduct

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MRI: only the right lateral ventricle is enlarged. Where is the blockage?

Right interventricular foramen

74
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A doctor needs a CSF sample. Where does the needle go?

Lumbar puncture into the subarachnoid space in the lower back (below where the cord ends, L1-L2)

75
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A pregnant patient gets an epidural. Which space receives the anaesthetic?

Epidural space (fat and vessels outside the dura)

76
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Where does CSF re-enter the blood?

Through arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus

77
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Why can't many water-soluble drugs reach the brain?

Blood-brain barrier: endothelial tight junctions + astrocyte processes block hydrophilic molecules

78
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Trace venous blood from the top of the brain to the neck

Superior sagittal sinus → confluence of sinuses → transverse → sigmoid → internal jugular vein

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A patient can't shrug the right shoulder. Which nerve?

Right CN XI (accessory) - trapezius

80
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A patient's tongue doesn't move properly. Which nerve?

CN XII (hypoglossal)

81
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A patient has lost sensation on the cheek. Which nerve and branch?

CN V, maxillary branch (V2)

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A patient can't chew properly. Which nerve?

CN V, mandibular branch (V3) - muscles of mastication

83
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A patient has a droopy eyelid and the eye rests down and out. Which nerve?

CN III (oculomotor)

84
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A patient's right eye can't look laterally and drifts medially. Which nerve?

Right CN VI (abducens) - lateral rectus

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A basilar artery stroke damages the pons. Which cranial nerve deficits are likely?

CN V-VIII, e.g. loss of facial (cheek) sensation from CN V

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A patient has lost taste on the front of the tongue. Which nerve?

CN VII (facial)

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A patient has lost taste on the back of the tongue and has trouble swallowing. Which nerve?

CN IX (glossopharyngeal)

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A drug reduces vagus nerve output. What happens to heart rate?

It increases (less parasympathetic braking)

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Right facial nerve is cut (LMN, like Bell's palsy). What deficit?

Complete paralysis of the entire RIGHT side of the face, including the forehead

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A stroke damages the left motor cortex for the face (UMN). What deficit?

Weakness of the lower RIGHT face; forehead is spared (bilateral input)

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Damage to the superior colliculi causes what?

Visual reflex deficits (e.g. tracking)

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You turn toward a sudden loud noise behind you. Which midbrain structure is involved?

Inferior colliculus (auditory reflexes)

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Parkinson's disease: which structure degenerates and what is lost?

Substantia nigra (midbrain); dopamine to the basal nuclei

94
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A lesion of the right cerebellar hemisphere causes clumsiness on which side?

Right side (cerebellum is ipsilateral); limbs

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A patient sways and can't keep the trunk steady. Which part of the cerebellum?

Vermis (axial control)

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A brainstem lesion stops breathing and heart rate control. Which part?

Medulla

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Where do the corticospinal (motor) tracts cross?

Pyramidal decussation in the medulla

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The dorsal horn of the spinal cord is damaged. Sensory or motor loss?

Sensory (dorsal = sensory, ventral = motor)

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A patient has damage to the hippocampus. What type of memory is most affected?

Forming new episodic (declarative) memories

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A patient can still ride a bike but can't remember what they ate this morning. Which memory types?

Procedural memory intact (cerebellum/basal nuclei); new episodic memory impaired