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5' - TAAGCCACT - 3'
What is the complementary sequence to the DNA strand 3' - ATTCGGTGA - 5'
(be sure to pay attention to the orientation of the sequence (5' end, 3' end) in the answer you choose)
5' - TAAGCCACT - 3'
3' - TAAGCCACT - 5'
3' - AGTGGCTTA -5'
5' - AGTGGCTTA - 3'
X-ray diffraction data
Rosalind Franklin's important contribution to solving the structure of DNA was:
Transformation of R-type bacteria with DNA from S-type bacteria
Discovering that the number of adenines matches the number of thymines in all genomes
Piecing together "ball and stick" models of nucleotides to form a double helix
X-ray Diffraction
Purify different types of macromolecule (DNA, RNA, Protein) from lethal bacteria (a strain that kills mice) and test which macromolecule is capable of transforming non-lethal bacteria into lethal bacteria.
Which of the following experimental approaches proved DNA is the genetic material?
- Use radiolabeled nucleotides to show that they are semi-conservatively incorporated into DNA
- Purify different types of macromolecule (DNA, RNA, Protein) from lethal bacteria (a strain that kills mice) and test which macromolecule is capable of transforming non-lethal bacteria into lethal bacteria.
- Determine the structure of different macromolecules using X-ray diffraction
- Heat kill lethal bacteria (a strain that kills mice) and incubate the dead bacteria with live bacteria of a non-lethal strain.
The addition of each nucleotide is powered by hydrolysis of ATP.
Which of the following statements about DNA replication is FALSE?
Each strand within the DNA double helix is used as a template for synthesis of a new strand.
The addition of each nucleotide is powered by hydrolysis of ATP.
It proceeds via the addition of new nucleotides to the 3′ end of a growing DNA strand.
It requires DNA polymerase
Leading strand synthesis only requires a single RNA primer to start, Lagging strand synthesis requires multiple RNA primers
Which of the following statements about leading strand versus lagging strand DNA synthesis is TRUE?
Leading strand synthesis only requires a single RNA primer to start, Lagging strand synthesis requires multiple RNA primers
Leading strand synthesis occurs in the 5' to 3' direction, Lagging strand synthesis occurs in the 3' to 5' direction
Leading strand synthesis generates the coding strand of DNA, Lagging strand synthesis generates the template strand of DNA
Leading strand synthesis requires topoisomerase to remove "knots" ahead of the replication fork, Lagging strand synthesis does not require topoisomerase
in eukaryotes, a single origin of replication forms at one telomere and spreads toward the opposite telomere so that only one origin of replication is required to replicate a chromosome
Which of the following statements about Origins of Replication is FALSE?
in eukaryotes, a single origin of replication forms at one telomere and spreads toward the opposite telomere so that only one origin of replication is required to replicate a chromosome
in eukaryotes, multiple origins of replication form along a chromosome
Origins of replication are bidirectional
each replication fork contains a leading strand and a lagging strand
Helicase
The enzyme that separates the two strands of DNA during DNA replication is:
Topoisomerase
Single Strand Isomerase
Helicase
Primase
the distance between the stop codon and the terminator sequence in the coding strand of DNA
The length of the 3' UTR in a eukaryotic mRNA is determined by:
the position of the TTTTTT sequence that encodes the polyA tail
the open or closed state of chromatin at the 3' end of the gene
the number of stop codons in the mRNA
the distance between the stop codon and the terminator sequence in the coding strand of DNA
In the nucleus
mRNA processing in eukaryotes (including 5' cap addition and splicing), occurs:
only after Dicer converts the RNA from double stranded to single stranded
in the nucleus
in the cytoplasm
only after ribosomes bind the mRNA
5' - AAGCCUGAU - 3'
What mRNA sequence will be transcribed from this DNA template sequence:
3' - TTCGGACTA - 5'
(be sure to pay attention to the orientation of the sequence (5' end, 3' end) in the answer you choose)
3' - AUCAGGCUU - 5'
5' - AAGCCUGAU - 3'
5' - UAGUCCGAA - 3'
3' - UUCGGACUA - 5'
20
How many aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases (the enzyme that attaches an amino acid to tRNAs) exist in a cell?
64
61 !
20
between 20 and 61
Peptidyl transfer - when the polypeptide is transferred from the P site and forms a peptide bond with the single amino acid attached to a tRNA in the A site
During translation elongation, what stimulates the ribosome to move down one codon?
A stop codon entering the A site.
A new tRNA entering the A site.
The hydrolysis of ATP.
Peptidyl transfer - when the polypeptide is transferred from the P site and forms a peptide bond with the single amino acid attached to a tRNA in the A site
the small ribosomal subunit directly binds to a ribosome binding site in the 5' UTR
Which of the following is unique to translation initiation in bacteria (does not occur in eukaryotes)?
the small ribosomal subunit directly binds to a ribosome binding site in the 5' UTR
the first amino acid added is Met (Methionine)
the start codon is AUG
only the small ribosomal subunit initially "scans" the mRNA
2, 1, 3, 4, 5
Which sequence of events CORRECTLY describes the initiation and elongation steps of translation in bacteria?
(1) initiator tRNA binds start codon on mRNA
(2) small ribosomal subunit binds to mRNA
(3) large ribosomal subunit binds
(4) tRNA entry and peptidyl transfer reaction
(5) translocation of ribosome and release of tRNA
2, 3, 1, 5, 4
1, 3, 2, 4, 5
2, 1, 3, 4, 5
1, 2, 3, 5, 4
aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases attach the correct amino acid to tRNAs
Which of the following does NOT occur during translation elongation?
Charged tRNAs (with the next amino acid to be added to the polypeptide) enter the A site of the ribosome.
Base pairing between tRNAs and the mRNA.
both the large and small ribosomal subunits are assembled on the mRNA
aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases attach the correct amino acid to tRNAs
release factor protein
What recognizes the codon UAA in the ribosome "A" site?
nothing - the A site is not filled when those codons are present
tRNAs that are not charged with an amino acid
release factor protein
any tRNA charged with Met
Only some nucleotides within a microRNA base pair with their target mRNA - the mutated nucleotides are outside this region
A scientist is studying a microRNA believed to play a role in cancer. She mutates two nucleotides of DNA in the gene encoding this microRNA. This mutation does not affect the cancer cells in any way and all of the microRNA targets are expressed normally. What is a possible explanation for this result?
Mutating DNA has no effect on microRNAs, she would have to mutate the RNA
The mutated nucleotides are not within the 5' UTR of the microRNA
MicroRNAs work together with siRNAs, so the siRNA can make up for the loss of microRNA function !
Only some nucleotides within a microRNA base pair with their target mRNA - the mutated nucleotides are outside this region.
HOTAIR could still bind target DNA sequences but would not bind to histone modifying proteins
Mutations in the HOTAIR gene that remove the secondary structures ("stem loops" or "hairpins") of the ncRNA but maintain the normal RNA sequence would likely cause what result?
HOTAIR could still bind target DNA sequences but would not bind to histone modifying proteins
HOTAIR would lose its ability to bind to DNA but could still bind histone modifying proteins
HOTAIR does not require secondary structures, it would still function normally
HOTAIR would lose its ability to bind to both target DNA and to histone modifying proteins
a microRNA that inhibits ey mRNA translation is expressed after the embryonic stage of development
During Minion development, the Ey protein is only produced during embryonic stages - it is not detected in the adult stage. You measure ey mRNA levels in embryonic and adult stages and find that the mRNA is present at high levels in both embryos and adults. This could be explained by:
a lack of ribosomes in the adult stage
loss of an activator required for ey gene transcription after the embryonic stage of development
a microRNA that inhibits ey mRNA translation is expressed after the embryonic stage of development
deletion of the ey gene after the embryonic stage of development
Histones are a major component of chromatin
Which of the following statements about chromatin is TRUE?
chromatin is only found near regulatory sequences and promoters
Histones are a major component of chromatin
chromatin modifications only occur during DNA replication
Nucleosomes are not considered part of chromatin
a ribosome binding site, a start codon, a stop codon
To produce multiple proteins from a polycistronic mRNA, each translated region must have:
a ribosome binding site, a start codon, a stop codon
a splice site before the next protein coding region
a start codon, a stop codon
a start codon, a stop codon, a termination sequence
Can't say what the effect on transcription will be - some histone modifications activate transcription, some histone modifications inhibit transcription
You discover a non-coding RNA (ncRNA) that contains domains which likely bind to histone modifiers. Even though the exact histone modifiers that bind this ncRNA are unknown, what can you predict about the function of this ncRNA?
- this ncRNA likely inhibits transcription since histone modifications always inhibit transcription
- Can't say what the effect on transcription will be - some histone modifications activate transcription, some histone modifications inhibit transcription
- this ncRNA likely does not bind to DNA since histone modifications mainly regulate mRNA translation
- this ncRNA likely activates transcription since histone modifications always activate transcription
transcription is only regulated via activator proteins and positive control
Which of the following statements about transcription regulation in bacteria is FALSE?
RNA polymerase binds to DNA at the promoter
transcription may be regulated by a combination of activator and repressor proteins
regulatory DNA sequences are often located close to the promoter
transcription is only regulated via activator proteins and positive control
alternative splicing of Gene x pre-mRNA
Fibroblast cells (a eukaryotic cell type) contain 1,000 different proteins. You predict that "Gene X" is involved in fibroblast formation and delete the gene. You discover that fibroblasts lacking Gene X contain 997 proteins. The three missing proteins contain an identical structural domain but are otherwise unique. This result could be explained by:
Three different microRNAs regulate Gene X translation
alternative splicing of Gene x pre-mRNA
Three different ribosome binding sites in the Gene X mRNA
A frameshift mutation in Gene X
A chromatin remodeler that makes the ey promoter accessible to RNA polymerase is only present in anterior / "head" cells
In Minion embryos, the ey gene is only expressed in anterior or "head" cells. This could occur because:
A microRNA that targets the ey mRNA is only present in anterior / "head" cells
A chromatin remodeler that makes the ey promoter accessible to RNA polymerase is only present in anterior / "head" cells
The TATA sequence is missing from the core promoter of the ey gene in posterior / "tail" cells
During development, DNA polymerase does not replicate the ey gene in posterior / "tail" cells
The lac operon would always be transcribed at very low rates, the levels of lactose and glucose would not matter
If lacI were mutated so that the Lac Repressor ALWAYS binds to the operator DNA sequence (regardless of small effector molecule levels), this would cause:
The lac operon would be transcribed at very high rates when lactose levels are low and glucose levels are high
The lac operon would be transcribed at very low rates when lactose levels are low, but would be transcribed at very high rates when lactose levels are high
The lac operon would be transcribed at very high rates when lactose and glucose levels are low
The lac operon would always be transcribed at very low rates, the levels of lactose and glucose would not matter
A transcription activator that is only expressed in fibroblasts and binds to an enhancer sequence in the collagen promoter
The collagen gene is transcribed in fibroblast cells but is never transcribed in neurons. This differential transcription could be regulated by:
a silencer DNA sequence that is only present in the collagen promoter of neurons
an enhancer DNA sequence that is only present in the collagen promoter of fibroblasts
A transcription activator that is only expressed in fibroblasts and binds to an enhancer sequence in the collagen promoter
the absence of a core promoter in the collagen gene of neurons
Germline cells
Huntington's disease is caused by a mutation in a single gene. The mutant gene is passed from a parent with Huntington's disease to 50% of their children. For this type of inheritance to occur, the mutation must be present in:
Germline cells
Cells that lack nucleotide excision repair
Somatic cells
Cells that lack DNA proofreading
is in the core promoter of the gene
A mutation in a gene in the fruit fly Drosophila was found to affect eye color. The relevant protein is normal in its molecular weight and amino acid sequence, although much less of the protein is made in mutant flies. A reasonable explanation for the change in levels of protein is that the mutation:
is in a splice site and causes alternative splicing of the pre-mRNA
is in the core promoter of the gene
introduces a premature stop codon
changes a single codon but is a silent mutation
Base excision repair
Cytosine can be converted to uracil by reactive nitrogen molecules. If this occurs within a gene, the uracil is removed by which mechanism:
Proofreading by ribosomes after the gene is transcribed into mRNA
Base excision repair
Proofreading by RNA polymerase when the gene is transcribed
Accurate base pairing by DNA polymerase when that gene is replicated
oncogenes
Mutations in the Ras gene can cause production of a hyperactive Ras protein that promotes cell proliferation / cell divisions. These mutant forms of Ras are:
proto-oncogenes
cell cycle genes
tumor suppressor genes
oncogenes
All of these choices are correct
A proto-oncogene may become an oncogene due to:
Gene amplification, so that the number of copies of the gene increases
Translocation of the gene to a new position within a chromosome, so that it's rate of transcription increases
Point mutation within the protein coding sequence, so that the protein becomes hyperactive
All of these choices are correct
Binding to and inhibiting a transcription factor, E2F, that in the absence of Rb binding "turns on" transcription of genes that promote cell division
The Rb (Retinoblastoma) protein functions as a tumor suppressor by:
Directly binding to enhancer elements that regulate proto-oncogenes
Directly binding to silencer DNA elements in genes that promote cell division
Binding to and inhibiting the activity of the Ras protein
Binding to and inhibiting a transcription factor, E2F, that in the absence of Rb binding "turns on" transcription of genes that promote cell division
a covalent phosphoester bond
During DNA synthesis, nucleotides are added to the 3' end of the DNA strand via formation of:
a double helix
a covalent phosphoester bond
hydrogen bonds between deoxyribose sugars
ionic bonds between phosphates
A DNA polymerase removes the RNA primer and replaces it with DNA
What happens to RNA primers during DNA replication?
The nucleotide excision repair pathway removes the RNA primer
A RNA transisomerase converts the RNA into DNA
RNA can't base pair with DNA, so the RNA primer doesn't stay associated with the template DNA
A DNA polymerase removes the RNA primer and replaces it with DNA
The addition of each nucleotide is powered by hydrolysis of ATP.
Which of the following statements about DNA replication is FALSE?
It requires DNA polymerase
The addition of each nucleotide is powered by hydrolysis of ATP.
Each strand within the DNA double helix is used as a template for synthesis of a new strand.
It proceeds via the addition of new nucleotides to the 3′ end of a growing DNA strand.
DNA synthesis only occurs in a 5' to 3' direction, which causes lagging strand synthesis to "restart" as new 3' regions of template DNA become available
During DNA replication, why is the lagging strand synthesized in a discontinuous fashion (multiple Okazaki fragments)?
DNA synthesis only occurs in a 5' to 3' direction, which causes lagging strand synthesis to "restart" as new 3' regions of template DNA become available
The lagging strand can't be synthesized until the leading strand is completed
There isn't any topoisomerase on the lagging strand
The DNA polymerase that synthesizes the lagging strand can only synthesize short sequences of DNA before it falls off the template.
The ends of chromosomes would become shorter (DNA sequence would be lost) after each round of DNA replication
What would happen if actively dividing cells were treated with a chemical that inhibits telomerase activity?
Okazaki fragments could not be properly joined together
Large portions of the middle of chromosomes would be single-stranded.
The ends of chromosomes would become shorter (DNA sequence would be lost) after each round of DNA replication
Origins of replication could not form in the middle of the chromosome.
core promoter
Eukaryotic transcription begins at a site in the DNA called the:
enhancer
operator
core promoter
start codon
the tRNA that was previously in the P site and no longer has any amino acid attached exits the ribosome
The Exit Site or "E" Site in a ribosome is where:
the 5' end of mRNA that has already been translated exits the ribosome
the finished polypeptide exits the ribosome
the tRNA that was previously in the P site and no longer has any amino acid attached exits the ribosome
the tRNA that was previously in the A site but has donated it's amino acid and moved to the E site exits the ribosome
30%
30 percent of the Minion genome is composed of the base guanine (G). Therefore, the base cytosine (C) must make up what percent of the genome?
30%
60%
20%
10%
All of these choices are correct
Which of the following enzymes are required for Leading Strand DNA synthesis?
all of these choices are correct
DNA primase
DNA polymerase
Helicase
three
How many nucleotides are in a codon?
three
four
two
one
pre-mRNA
Which of the following types of RNA is NOT produced in bacteria?
pre-mRNA
rRNA
mRNA
tRNA
the 3' UTR is not translated
Which of the following statements about the 3' UTR of eukaryotic mRNAs is FALSE?
the 3' UTR is not translated
the last nucleotide in the 3' UTR is followed by a series of adenines (the "polyA tail")
the nucleotides at the end of the 3' UTR always form a stop codon
microRNAs bind to the 3' UTR of their targets
Glucose causes cAMP levels to decrease and cAMP is the small molecule effector required by CAP to activate lac operon transcription
E. coli exposed to high levels of lactose and glucose (lactose high + glucose high) will transcribe the lac operon at a low rate because:
Glucose causes cAMP levels to decrease and cAMP is the small molecule effector required by CAP to activate lac operon transcription
High levels of lactose cause decreased expression of CAP, regardless of glucose levels
Glucose causes Lac Repressor levels to increase. Lac Repressor binds to the operator sequence, inhibiting lac operon transcription.
High levels of lactose lead to high levels of allolactose. Allolactose binds to the the Lac Repressor and causes it to bind an operator sequence, inhibiting lac operon transcription.
The complexity allows precise control over the timing of transcription and the type of cell where transcription occurs
Which statement best describes why multicellular eukaryotes typically use more complex combinations of regulatory elements to control gene transcription compared to bacteria?
the complexity allows more than one protein to be produced from a single gene
the complexity ensures that a single mutation won't affect gene transcription
the complexity is caused by DNA duplication events that don't occur in bacteria
The complexity allows precise control over the timing of transcription and the type of cell where transcription occurs
DNA is a double helix, so once a damaged region is removed, the correct sequence can be synthesized by using the opposite DNA strand as a template
What characteristic of DNA makes the nucleotide excision repair (NER) pathway possible?
DNA is wrapped around histone proteins that can influence its accessibility to proteins.
DNA may have its own enzymatic activity.
DNA is a double helix, so once a damaged region is removed, the correct sequence can be synthesized by using the opposite DNA strand as a template
DNA is a molecule with directionality, with a free 5' phosphate and a free 3' hydroxyl group.
3' -> 5' exonuclease
DNA polymerase uses which activity to remove a mismatched base pair?
3' -> 5' exonuclease
protease
5' -> 3' exonuclease
RNase
A missense mutation that increases the activity of a protein encoded by a tumor suppressor gene
Which of the following is NOT likely to contribute to cancer formation
A nonsense (loss of function) mutation in a tumor suppressor gene
Increased expression of telomerase
A mutation within the promoter of a proto-oncogene that causes an increased rate of transcription
A missense mutation that increases the activity of a protein encoded by a tumor suppressor gene