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The side of the epithelial cell that faces the lumen is called the ________.
Apical surface.
One layer of cells is called ___________.
Simple epithelium.
What epithelial cell type is found lining the walls of blood vessels and the lungs?
Simple squamous epithelium.
What epithelial cell type is found at areas where protection is needed?
Stratified squamous epithelium.
Which layer of the integumentary system contains blood vessels?
The dermis (middle layer) and the hypodermis (deepest subcutaneous layer).
Which layer of the integumentary system is made up of collagen and elastic fibers?
The dermis.
T/F -- The dermis contains the cells that protect us from UV light and give our skin its color?
False.
T/F – The dermis is mainly made of epithelial cells and contains many sensory receptors and glands.
False.
Which skin cancer type is deadly?
Melanoma.
_________ feedback brings about an increasing change in the same directions as the original stimulus.
Positive feedback.
T/F – The regulation of body temperature is an example of a positive feedback loop.
False.
What tissue type is the SKELETAL SYSTEM made up of?
Connective tissue.
Name at least 3 functions of the SKELETAL SYSTEM.
Support: The rigid framework of bones gives the body its shape, posture, and structural support to hold up body weight.
Protection: Bones act as a shield to safeguard vital internal organs (the skull protects the brain, and the rib cage protects the heart and lungs).
Movement: Bones work alongside skeletal muscles, tendons, and joints, functioning as mechanical levers to allow movement.
The shaft or middle part of a long bone is called the _____________.
Diaphysis.
What is the name of the layer of dense fibrous connective tissue that covers the outside of bone?
Periosteum.
Which type of connective tissue is found at the end of long bones?
Articular cartilage.
Where are red blood cells made?
The red bone marrow inside your bones.
Living bone cells are called?
Osteocytes: The most common living cells in mature bone. They develop from osteoblasts that become trapped in the bone matrix. They act as sensors to detect pressure, stress, and cracks, and they signal other cells to repair the bone.
Osteoblasts: The "builder" cells that form and create new bone tissue by laying down new minerals and collagen.
Osteoclasts: The "breakdown" or "clean-up" cells that dissolve and remove old or damaged bone tissue.
Osteoprogenitor (or Osteogenic) cells: Stem cells inside the bone that divide and turn into new osteoblasts.
Bone-lining cells: Inactive, flat osteoblasts that cover and protect the surface of resting bone.
T/F – The femur or the bone in the thigh, is part of the axial skeleton.
False.
The skull is made up of ___________ bones.
22 bones.
How many bones make up the face?
14 bones.
The AXIAL Skeleton is made up of which parts?
80 bones. Skull (22 bones), associated skull bones (7 bones), vertebral column (26 bones in adults), and thoracic cage (25 bones).
What is the structure in an osteon where osteocytes hang out?
Lacunae.
Where are blood cells made?
Bone marrow.
What is the end of the long bone called?
The epiphysis.
How many vertebrae do we have?
33 vertebrae at birth, which reduces to 24 movable vertebrae (plus the fused sacrum and coccyx) in adulthood.
How many separate sections are there in the vertebral column?
Cervical region: Consists of 7 vertebrae (C1–C7) in the neck.
Thoracic region: Consists of 12 vertebrae (T1–T12) in the upper/mid back.
Lumbar region: Consists of 5 large vertebrae (L1–L5) in the lower back.
Sacral region: Consists of 5 fused vertebrae forming the single sacrum bone.
Coccygeal region: Consists of 3 to 5 fused vertebrae forming the coccyx or tailbone.
Name the sections and how many vertebrae are in each?
Cervical (Neck): 7 vertebrae (C1–C7)
Thoracic (Upper/Mid Back): 12 vertebrae (T1–T12)
Lumbar (Lower Back): 5 vertebrae (L1–L5)
Sacral (Pelvis): 5 fused vertebrae (S1–S5)
Coccyx (Tailbone): 4 fused vertebrae (varies from 3 to 5)
How many ribs do we have?
24 ribs.
How many True, False, and Floating?
True ribs (Pairs 1–7): They connect directly to the breastbone (sternum) via costal cartilage.
False ribs (Pairs 8–10): They connect indirectly to the sternum by sharing the cartilage of the ribs above them.
Floating ribs (Pairs 11–12): They attach only to the spine at the back and do not connect to the sternum at the front.
Which part of the vertebral column do the ribs connect?
Thoracic spine.
How does a bone lengthen?
Endochondral ossification.
Describe the process of DNA to RNA to Protein – be sure to include the terms transcription and translation.
Step 1: Transcription (DNA to RNA), initiation, elongation, termination and processing, exit.
Step 2: Translation (RNA to Protein), codons, initiation, elongation, termination, and folding.
DNA replication occurs in which phase of the cell cycle.
S phase (synthesis phase) of interphase.
What are the three types of cartilage, and where are they found in the body?
Hyaline cartilage (articular surfaces of movable joints), elastic cartilage ( The external ear (pinna/auricle), the epiglottis, and parts of the larynx), and fibrocartilage (Intervertebral discs in the spine, the menisci of the knee, and the pubic symphysis).
Adipose tissue is a type of ________________ connective tissue.
loose (or specialized) connective tissue.
List two functions of the skeletal system.
Support (providing a rigid structural framework that gives the body shape and holds up its weight) and protection (safeguarding vital internal organs, such as the skull protecting the brain or the rib cage shielding the heart and lungs).
The shaft of the a long bone is called ____________ and the end of the long bone is called _____________.
Diaphysis and epiphysis.
Living bone cells, called _____________ are found in chambers called _____________ within compact bone.
Osteocytes and lacunae.
The skull and rib cage are part of the _________ skeleton.
Axial skeleton.
The two main types of ossification are _____________ and _____________ ossification (which one did I go over in class).
Intramembranous and endochondral.
Cross-over or recombination occurs during which phase of Meiosis?
Prophase I.
Which type of muscle tissue is none striated and single nucleated?
Smooth muscle cell.
Another word for a muscle cell is a _____
Myocyte.
A bundle of muscle cells is called a ______
Fascicles (or fasciculi).
The ________ is the connective tissue that surrounds a muscle cell.
The endomysium.
The plasma membrane that surrounds the muscle cell is called the _________.
Sarcolemma.
T/F – Calcium binds to tropomyosin.
False.
T/F – The A Band is called a sarcomere.
False.
T/F – Myosin binds to troponin.
False.
ATP binds to _______.
Myosin head.
___________ covers the myosin binding site on actin.
Tropomyosin.
Calcium is released from the ___________.
Muscle cells (contraction), general cells (signaling), and systemic blood regulation (bone resorption).
The ATP used in a muscle contraction is made in which organelle using oxygen?
Mitochondrion.
A myofibril is filled with _________.
Myofilaments.
Which is thicker actin or myosin?
Myosin.
In your own words write out the 4 ways we generate ATP for exercise and how long each one lasts.
Intracellular ATP Stores (Stored ATP) 1 to 3 seconds. The Phosphagen System (ATP-PCr) 5 to 15 seconds. Anaerobic Glycolysis (The Lactic Acid System) 30 seconds to 2 minutes. Aerobic System (Oxidative Phosphorylation) 2 minutes to several hours.