anesthesia final quizlet (copy)

a 5 kg puppy needs some subcutaneous fluids due to dehydration. The veterinarian wants you to give 20 ml/kg. How many mls should this patient receive?

100 ml

if a 25 kg patient comes in with 8% dehydration, how many mls of fluid does it need over 24 hours to replace the deficit

2000 ml

the concentration of furosemide (lasix) is 5%. How many mgs are in 0.8 mL

40 mg

a 45 lob standard poodle has come into the hospital for hind limb lameness. The veterinarian would like you to give a subcutaneous injection of carprofen for pain at a dose of 2.2 mg/kg. Carprofen comes in a 50 mg/ml solution. How many mls will you give to this patient

0.9 ml

how many mgs are in 120 ml of a 2% solution of lidocaine

2400 mg

a 7 kg pomeranian is hypoglycemic and needs a dextrose CRI. You made a 2.5% solution of dextrose and your veterinarian wants to give a 50 mg bolus out of that solution. How many mls should be administered

2 ml

a 100 lb great dane has presented with a GDV. As a premedication, the dog will receive 0.3 mg/kg of methadone. How many mgs will you administer

13.6 mg

during surgery you need to administer 100 mg of enrofloxacin is 2.27%. How many mls of drug will you administer

4.4 ml

you want to give a pre-surgical dose of cefazolin, an antibiotic, to your patient. You have a 1 gram vial that needs to be reconstituted with 10 mls of sterile water. You want to give a 22 mg/kg dose to a 10 kg dose. How many mls do you give

2.2 ml

a 12 year old 6 kg pug presents for a respiratory distress and suddenly goes into cardiac arrest. you need to administer a dose of 0.02 mg/kg of epinephrine IV. The bottle says it is a 1:1000 solution. How many mls will you administer

0.12 ml

as a post-operative medication for an OHE on a 6 kg cat, the veterinarian wants you to administer 15 mcg/kg of buprenorphrine IV. How many mls will you administer if it comes in a 0.3 mg/ml solution

0.3 ml

you want to start a fentanyl CRI for analgesia postoperatively on your splenectomy 60lb patient. Prior to starting the CRI you need a loading dose of 5 mcg/kg IV. the concentration of fentanyl is 50 mcg/ml. How many mls will you give of the fentanyl

2.73 ml

you want to do an epidural on a 22 kg labrador for a TPLO surgery with 0.5 mg/kg of 0.5% bupivacaine. How many mls of bupivacaine will you administer

2.2 mls

during an adrenalectomy on a 6.4 kg King Charles Spaniel, a lot of blood was lost and you need to give your patient a blood transfusion. The rate is 5 ml/kg/hr over 4 hours. How many mls of blood will you need

128 ml

you calculate an anesthetic maintenance fluid rate to be 30 ml/hr of plasmalyte for your 7 kg dachshund. if you have a 60 drops/ml IV set, what should the drip rate be in drops/sec

1 gtt/2 sec

During anesthesia you want your 3kg cat to receive 3 ml/kg/hr of LRS. What is the ml/hr the cat will receive

9 ml/hr

During anesthesia you want your 31 kg dog to receive 5 ml/kg/hr. what is the ml/hr the dog will receive

155 ml/hr

a 12 kg dog comes into the clinic with 6% dehydration. your vet wants you to run the patient at 60 ml/kg/day on Normosol fluids plus correct the dehydration over 24 hours. What will the patient's fluid rate be in ml/hr

60 ml/hr

you want to run a fentanyl CRI to provide intra-operative analgesia to a 15 kg dog for a mast cell tumor removal. You want to start the CRI at 10 mcg/kg/hr. The concentration of fentanyl is 50 mcg/ml. what is the rate in ml/hr for the CRI

3 ml/hr

you need to make a 250 ml bag of 2.5% dextrose. how many mls of 50% dextrose do you add to the bag

12.5 ml

you want to make a solution of 1 mg/ml acepromazine for your small animal patients. how many mls of 10 mg/ml acepromazine will it take to make a 30 ml bottle of 1 mg/ml

3 ml

during you pre-anesthetic physical exam of a 4 kg cat for a dental, you obtained a respiratory rate of 24 bpm. what is the approximate tidal volume

50 ml

during your pre-anesthetic physical exam of a 4 kg cat for a dental, you obtained a respiratory rate of 24 bpm. what is the approximate minute volume

1000 ml

during your pre-anesthetic physical exam of a 4 kg cat for a dental, you obtained a respiratory rate of 24 bpm. what size reservoir bag should be on the anesthetic machine

0.5 L

during your pre-anesthetic physical exam of a 4 kg cat for a dental, you obtained a respiratory rate of 24 bpm. using a non-rebreathing system flow rate of 250 ml/kg/min, what should the flow meter on the anesthetic machine be set on in L/min

1 L/min

your vet wants to run a fentanyl CRI postoperatively on a 15 kg dog with a liver lobectomy. however he wants you to mix it with the patient's fluids. he wants the fentanyl at 3 mcg/kg/hr and the fluid rate at 2 ml/kg/hr. you have a 500 ml bag of LRS. what should the new concentration of fentanyl be in the bag.

1.5 mcg/ml

a 9 kg dachshund was diagnosed with IVDD at T13-L1 and needs a hemilaminectomy. you want to run a lidocaine (2%) CRI at 50 mcg/kg/min in a syringe pump. how many mls of lidocaine will you need to last 4 hours

5.4 mls

during an abdominal exploratory your 28 kg dog develops VPC's. you start a lidocaine CRI at 50 mcg/kg/min. Using 2% lidocaine, what will the rate in mls/hr be for the CRI

4.2 ml/hr

you realize that the CRI rate is too small for the syringe pump to deliver accurately for the 3 kg yorkie at 0.1 mg/kg/hr fo 10 mg/ml morphine. you decide to dilute your morphine to 0.1 mg/ml. you want your CRI to last 5 hours. How many mls of the saline will you need to dilute your morphine

14.85 ml

a 20 kg patient is currently receiving metoclopramide at a rate of 2 mg/kg/day. the concentration of metoclopramide is 5 mg/ml. how many mls are required per day

8 ml per day

which of the following is not included in a patient's signalment:
breed, age, reproductive status, body condition score, species, sex

body condition score

which of the following statements regarding physical examination findings is incorrect?
- dehydration increases the risk of hypotension
- a dog with a BCS score of 8/9 will require more anesthetic per unit body weight than a dog of the same breed with BCS of 5/9
-patients with bruising may be at a higher risk for potentially life-threatening intraoperative and postoperative bleeding
-anemia predisposes the patient to hypoxemia

a dog with a BCS score of 8/9 will require more anesthetic per unit body weight than a dog of the same breed with BCS of 5/9

you are evaluating a patient's LOC and find the patient in a sleeplike state, nonresponsive to a verbal stimulus but arousable by a painful stimulus. this patient is:
stuporous, lethargic, comatose, obtunded

stuporous

you are evaluating a patient's LOC and find the patient with mildly decreased LOC and can be aroused with minimal difficulty. This patient:
stuporous, lethargic, comatose, obtunded

lethargic

you are evaluating a patient hydration. You notice the patient has dry mucous membranes, a CRT of 3 seconds, and a skin tent that lasts about 6 sec. what percent of dehydration would you classify this patient

8-10%

T/F: a patient's pulse is dependent on their species, breed, and age

true

what could a high PCV mean

dehydration

what is the arrhythmia in which the heart rate increases during inspiration and decreases during expiration? this is commonly seen in young, healthy dogs

sinus arrhythmia

which ASA status would this patient be classified?

11 year old intact male hound mix came in after getting ran over by a semi-truck. It needs an emergency abdominal exploratory surgery. Blood work showed a PCV of 15%, TP is 5 g/dl, and high ALT and ALP. Physical exam revealed multiple fractures in the pelvic region, severe lung contusions, pale mucous membranes, and tachycardia. Radiographs and ultrasound revealed active bleeding in the abdomen and chest.

5

which asa status would this patient be classified?

12 year old male chihuahua is scheduled for a dental prophylaxis. CBC and serum chemistry values are all within normal limits. physical exam revealed severe tartar and gingivitis

2

T/F: IV fluid therapy can increase circulating blood volume and cardiac output which will support blood pressure and tissue perfusion

true

which fluid is most appropriate to replace moderate losses from dehydration

isotonic crystalloids

which of the following statements regarding electrolyte composition of fluids is incorrect:
- extracellular fluid contains more sodium intracellular fluid
-extracellular fluid contains more potassium than intravascular fluid
- the osmolarity of intracellular fluid is similar to that of extracellular fluid
- intravascular fluid has more negatively charged particles than positively charged particles

intravascular fluid has more negatively charged particles than positively charged particles

which of the following general guidelines about body fluids in a normal adult is incorrect?:
- about 40% of the body weight is water
- about 2/3 of the total body water is inside the cells
- blood plasma makes up about 5% of the total body weight
- dogs have a larger total blood volume than cats

about 40% of the body weight is water

which of the following is NOT a sign of fluid overload:
- ocular and nasal discharge
- hypotension
- increased lung sounds
- increased respiratory rate
- dyspnea

hypotension

regarding fluid infusion rates, which of the following is TRUE:
- hyper tonic saline is administered in large volumes to patient's in shock
- standard shock doses of fluids are about the same as doses used during routine surgery
- surgery patients with blood loss may require colloids instead of crystalloids
- crystalloids are generally given at lower administration rates than colloids to prevent shock

surgery patients with blood loss may require colloids instead of crystalloids

why should you not administer LRS with blood products

it contains calcium which can clot transfused blood

what is normal saline used for

flush IV catheters, flush body cavities during surgery, to bathe exposed tissue during surgery

what is the crystalloid administration rate for maintenance under anesthesia in a cat

3 ml/kg/hr

Scooby is a healthy 4 year old intact Great Dane that has come in for an elective neuter weighing 81 lbs. what fluid type would be appropriate for this procedure? what will scooby's hourly rate be?

LRS; 185 mls/hr

T/F: Diethyl ether, nitrous oxide, and chloroform are all examples of halogenated agents

false

an anesthetic agent that has low solubility will result in \__________ induction and recovery time

fast

what is the common carrier gas for inhalants

oxygen

which is not a side effect of an inhalant:
- hypotension
- hypothermia
- anemia
- paddling upon recovery

anemia

what is the MAC of isoflurane

1.3%

what is the MAC of sevoflurane

2.4%

why does inhalant cause hypotension

vasodilation

what does MAC stand for

minimum alveolar concentration required to anesthetize 50% of patients

for safety purposes inhalants are color coded. what is the color for isoflurane

purple

T/F: sevoflurane is less soluble than isoflurane

true

Local anesthetic agents work because?:
- they mechanically block nerve impulse transmission
- they interfere with the movement of sodium ions
- they block all impulses at the spinal cord level
- they affect neurotransmission within the brain

they interfere with the movement of sodium ions

when a local anesthetic is injected around a single major nerve, the procedure is referred to as an \___________ \_______ \______

infiltration nerve block

local anesthetic block transmission of nerve impulses from what types of neurons

sensory, motor, and automatic

which of the following local anesthetics has the shortest duration:
- bupivacaine
- lidocaine
- mepivacaine
- tetracaine

lidocaine

which of the following local anesthetics can be used intravenously:
- bupivacaine
- lidocaine
- mepivacaine
- tetracaine

lidocaine

a radial ulnar fracture might benefit from an \_________ \_______ \______ (nerve block)

brachial plexus block

A tibial plateau leveling osteotomy of the right hind limb might benefit from an \__________ (nerve block)

epidural (lumbosacral)

During an intercostal block the needle walks off the (cranial/caudal) aspect of the rib

caudal

an extraction of the right canine of the mandible might benefit from a \_________ \_______ (nerve block)

mental block

an enucleation of the right eye might benefit form a \______________ \______ (nerve block)

retrobulbar block

T/F: high doses of opioids can cause bradycardia and respiratory depression

true

severe bradycardia caused by dexmedetomidine is best treated with

atipamezole

opioids may be reversed with

naloxone

T/F: premedicating patients before they are induced DOES NOT reduce the amount of induction agent

false

Propofol sometimes causes transient apnea. To avoid this, what should the anesthetist do

titrate this drug in several boluses

which of the following is an example of a dissociative anesthetic:
- propofol
- ketamine
- alfaxalone
- etomidate

ketamine

effects that are commonly seen after administration of a dissociative include:
- increased blood pressure
- increased heart rate
- increased CSF

all

which of the following is an alpha2-agonist:
- atipamezole
- ketamine
- acepromazine
- dexmedatomidine

dexmeditomidine

which of the following is an opioid:
- naloxone
- ketamine
- fentanyl
- midazolam

fentanyl

which of the following reverses midazolam:
- flumazenil
- atipamezole
- naloxone

flumazenil

what are characteristic effects of the benzodiazepines

muscle relaxation

T/F: one of the disadvantages of the drug etomidate is that animals that are anesthetized with it may demonstrate excitement during recovery

true

which route of administration is best when inducing your patient because you can titrate the drug to effect

IV

T/F: butorphanol can partially reverse opioids

true

which drug listed is a phenothiazine:
-midazolam
-alfaxalone
-buprenorphine
-acepromazine

acepromazine

which class of drugs have the best analgesic effects

opioids

what are NOT some major effects of alfaxalone:
- analgesia
- tachycardia
- muscle relaxation
- respiratory depression

analgesia

which of the drugs listed below is considered a reversal for alpha 2 agonists:
- atipamezole
- yohimbine
- tolazoline

all

which of the following drugs will precipitate out when mixed with other drugs or solutions:
- atropine
- acepromazine
- diazepam
- butorphanol

diazepam

which of the following opioids is a weak partial mu agonist:
- buprenorphine
- fentanyl
- morphine
- butorphanol

burprenorphine

which of the following induction agents provide analgesia:
- propofol
- ketamine
- alfaxalone
- etomidate

ketamine

which of the following opioids has the shortest duration of action:
- morphine
- hydromorphone
- methadone
- fentanyl

fentanyl

of the following, which drug is sensitive to ruminants:
- butorphanol
- ketamine
- xylazine

xylazine

an ovariohysterectomy, which involves surgically incising the skin and abdominal wall and excising the uterus and ovaries, has the following components of pain:
- somatic pain only
- visceral pain only
- both somatic & visceral pain
- neither

both somatic & visceral pain

The process by which thermal, mechanical, or chemical noxious stimuli are converted into electrical signals is called ?

transduction

in the spinal cord, pain impulses can be altered by neurons that either suppress or amplify nerve impulses. this process is known as ?

modulation

which of the following drug combinations is an example of multimodal analgesic therapy:
- dexmedetomidine, sevoflurane
- acepromazine, ketamine, isoflurane
- acepromazine, morphine, isoflurane
- dexmedetomidine, morphine, ketamine

dexmedetomidine, morphine, ketamine

T/F: a pain scale can be used to assess pain as well as response to analgesic therapy

true

which of the following statements regarding multimodal analgesic therapy is true?:
- the dose of each drug is decreased when several drugs are used
- multiple pain receptor mechanisms are targeted by one drug
- one pain receptor mechanism is targeted by several drugs
- side effects are increased by using several drugs

the dose of each drug is decreased when several drugs are used

which answer is the correct order of the pain pathway?:
- transmission, transduction, modulation, perception
- modulation, transduction, transmission, perception
- transduction, transmission, modulation, perception
- transmission, perception, modulation, transduction

transduction, transmission, modulation, perception