CompTIA Network+ Domain 1

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Last updated 1:53 AM on 10/16/26
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147 Terms

1
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What is the OSI model?

A seven-layer reference model for network communication.

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OSI Layer 1 — Physical

Transmits raw bits through physical media and signals.

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OSI Layer 2 — Data Link

Handles frames, MAC addresses, and local-link delivery.

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OSI Layer 3 — Network

Handles logical IP addressing and routing between networks.

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OSI Layer 4 — Transport

Provides end-to-end transport, segmentation, and port addressing.

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OSI Layer 5 — Session

Establishes, manages, and terminates communication sessions.

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OSI Layer 6 — Presentation

Translates, formats, encrypts, and compresses data.

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OSI Layer 7 — Application

Provides network services directly to applications.

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What is a router?

A device that forwards packets between IP networks.

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What is a switch?

A device that forwards frames using MAC addresses.

11
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What is a firewall?

A device or software that filters traffic using security rules.

12
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What is an IDS?

An intrusion detection system that identifies suspicious activity and alerts.

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What is an IPS?

An intrusion prevention system that detects and blocks malicious activity.

14
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What is a load balancer?

Distributes requests across multiple servers or resources.

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What is a proxy?

An intermediary that forwards requests between clients and other systems.

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What is NAS?

Network-attached storage provides file-level storage over a network.

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What is SAN?

A storage area network provides block-level storage access to servers.

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What is a wireless access point?

A device that connects wireless clients to a network.

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What is a wireless controller?

A system that centrally manages multiple wireless access points.

20
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What is a CDN?

A content delivery network distributes content through geographically dispersed servers.

21
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What is a VPN?

A virtual private network creates a protected connection over an untrusted network.

22
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What is QoS?

Quality of service prioritizes traffic to meet performance requirements.

23
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What is TTL?

Time to live limits a packet's lifetime or a record's caching duration.

24
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What is NFV?

Network functions virtualization runs network services as software instead of dedicated appliances.

25
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What is a VPC?

A virtual private cloud is an isolated virtual network in a cloud environment.

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What are network security groups?

Virtual firewall rules that control allowed inbound and outbound traffic for cloud resources.

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What are network security lists?

Rules that control ingress and egress traffic for cloud network subnets or resources.

28
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What is an internet gateway?

A cloud gateway that enables eligible resources to communicate with the internet.

29
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What is a NAT gateway?

A gateway that lets private-network resources initiate outbound connections without public IPs.

30
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What is AWS Direct Connect?

A dedicated network connection between an organization and AWS.

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What is a public cloud deployment?

Cloud infrastructure offered to multiple customers over shared provider infrastructure.

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What is a private cloud deployment?

Cloud infrastructure dedicated to one organization.

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What is a hybrid cloud deployment?

An environment combining private infrastructure with public cloud resources.

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What is SaaS?

Software as a service delivers ready-to-use applications over a network.

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What is IaaS?

Infrastructure as a service provides virtualized compute, storage, and networking resources.

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What is PaaS?

Platform as a service provides a managed environment for building and deploying applications.

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What is scalability?

The ability to increase or decrease capacity to meet demand.

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What is elasticity?

The ability to dynamically adjust resources as demand changes.

39
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What is multitenancy?

Multiple customers share underlying infrastructure with logical isolation.

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What is FTP?

File Transfer Protocol transfers files; it commonly uses TCP ports 20 and 21.

41
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What is SFTP?

Secure File Transfer Protocol transfers files over SSH, typically using TCP port 22.

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What is SSH?

Secure Shell provides encrypted remote access over TCP port 22.

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What is Telnet?

An unencrypted remote terminal protocol that typically uses TCP port 23.

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What is SMTP?

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol sends email; the listed port is TCP 25.

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What is DNS?

Domain Name System resolves domain names and other DNS records; it uses port 53.

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What is DHCP?

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol automatically assigns IP settings; it uses UDP ports 67 and 68.

47
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What is TFTP?

Trivial File Transfer Protocol provides simple file transfers over UDP port 69.

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What is HTTP?

Hypertext Transfer Protocol transfers web content; its default port is TCP 80.

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What is NTP?

Network Time Protocol synchronizes system clocks, typically using UDP port 123.

50
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What is SNMP?

Simple Network Management Protocol monitors and manages devices on UDP ports 161 and 162.

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What is LDAP?

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol accesses directory services, typically on port 389.

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What is HTTPS?

HTTP secured with TLS, typically using TCP port 443.

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What is SMB?

Server Message Block provides network file and printer sharing, typically on TCP port 445.

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What is Syslog?

A protocol for transmitting system logs, commonly using UDP port 514.

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What is SMTP submission?

Authenticated email submission commonly uses TCP port 587.

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What is LDAPS?

LDAP secured with TLS, typically using TCP port 636.

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What is Microsoft SQL Server's default port?

TCP port 1433.

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What is RDP?

Remote Desktop Protocol provides remote graphical access, typically on TCP/UDP port 3389.

59
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What is SIP?

Session Initiation Protocol manages communication sessions, commonly on ports 5060 and 5061.

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What is ICMP?

Internet Control Message Protocol carries network diagnostic and error messages.

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What is TCP?

Transmission Control Protocol provides reliable, ordered, connection-oriented delivery.

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What is UDP?

User Datagram Protocol provides connectionless delivery without guaranteed reliability or ordering.

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What is GRE?

Generic Routing Encapsulation tunnels network-layer packets inside other packets.

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What is IPsec?

A suite of protocols that protects IP traffic through authentication and/or encryption.

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What is IPsec AH?

Authentication Header provides integrity and data-origin authentication, but not encryption.

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What is IPsec ESP?

Encapsulating Security Payload can provide confidentiality, integrity, and authentication.

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What is IKE?

Internet Key Exchange negotiates security associations and keys for IPsec.

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What is unicast traffic?

Traffic sent from one source to one destination.

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What is multicast traffic?

Traffic sent from one source to a subscribed group of destinations.

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What is anycast traffic?

Traffic sent to the nearest or best destination among multiple systems sharing an address.

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What is broadcast traffic?

Traffic sent from one source to all hosts on the local broadcast domain.

72
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What is IEEE 802.11?

The IEEE family of standards for wireless LAN networking.

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What is cellular networking?

Wireless communication using geographically divided cells and cellular base stations.

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What is satellite networking?

Communication that uses satellites to relay signals over long distances.

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What is IEEE 802.3?

The IEEE family of Ethernet networking standards.

76
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Single-mode vs. multimode fiber

Single-mode supports longer distances; multimode is typically used for shorter distances.

77
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What is DAC?

Direct attach copper is a short-reach copper cable assembly used for high-speed links.

78
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What is twinaxial cable?

A cable with two inner conductors and shielding, commonly used in DAC assemblies.

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What is coaxial cable?

A cable with a central conductor, insulation, and shielding.

80
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What is plenum-rated cable?

Cable designed to meet stricter fire and smoke requirements for plenum spaces.

81
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What is non-plenum cable?

Cable not rated for plenum spaces unless installation conditions and local code permit it.

82
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What is an Ethernet transceiver?

A component that transmits and receives Ethernet signals over a specified medium.

83
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What is a Fibre Channel transceiver?

A transceiver designed for Fibre Channel storage networking.

84
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What is an SFP?

A small form-factor pluggable transceiver module for network connections.

85
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What is a QSFP?

A quad small form-factor pluggable module supporting multiple high-speed lanes.

86
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What is an SC connector?

A push-pull fiber-optic connector with a square-shaped housing.

87
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What is an LC connector?

A small-form-factor fiber-optic connector with a latch.

88
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What is an ST connector?

A fiber-optic connector that uses a bayonet-style twist lock.

89
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What is an MPO connector?

A multi-fiber push-on connector that terminates multiple optical fibers.

90
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What is an RJ11 connector?

A registered-jack connector commonly used for telephone lines.

91
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What is an RJ45 connector?

An eight-position connector commonly used with twisted-pair Ethernet cabling.

92
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What is an F-type connector?

A threaded coaxial connector commonly used for cable television and broadband.

93
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What is a BNC connector?

A bayonet-locking coaxial connector used in RF and legacy networking applications.

94
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What is a mesh topology?

A topology where nodes connect to multiple other nodes for redundancy.

95
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What is a hybrid topology?

A network design combining two or more topology types.

96
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What is a star topology?

Devices connect to a central switch or hub.

97
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What is a spine-and-leaf topology?

A data-center design where leaf switches connect to spine switches.

98
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What is a point-to-point topology?

A dedicated link connects exactly two endpoints.

99
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What is the core layer?

The high-speed backbone interconnecting distribution layers in a three-tier network.

100
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What is the distribution layer?

The layer that aggregates access switches and applies routing or policy.