Antimicrobial Pharmacology II

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73 Terms

1
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What is the sequence of daptomycin's mechanism of action?

Binds membrane → forms calcium-dependent complexes → potassium loss and membrane depolarization

2
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Is daptomycin bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

Bactericidal

3
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What are the major muscle-related adverse effects of daptomycin?

Myopathy, rhabdomyolysis, and increased creatine phosphokinase (CPK)

4
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Why should daptomycin NOT be used for pneumonia?

Pulmonary surfactant inactivates it

5
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What enzyme does fosfomycin inhibit?

MurA (UDP-N-acetylglucosamine enolpyruvyl transferase)

6
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What stage of bacterial cell wall synthesis does fosfomycin block?

An early, first step in peptidoglycan precursor synthesis (UDP-N-acetylmuramic acid formation)

7
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What are the two fosfomycin resistance mechanisms?

- Reduced MurA affinity

- Reduced bacterial uptake through glycerophosphate/glucose-6-phosphate transporters

8
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How does bacitracin inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis?

Prevents dephosphorylation/recycling of the bactoprenol lipid carrier

9
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Why is bacitracin generally used only topically?

It is highly nephrotoxic when administered systemically

10
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Which two antibiotic classes bind the 30S ribosomal subunit?

Aminoglycosides and Tetracyclines

11
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Which four antibiotic groups bind the 50S ribosomal subunit?

- Macrolides

- Chloramphenicol

- Lincosamides (clindamycin)

- Oxazolidinones (linezolid)

12
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What kind of bacteria are aminoglycosides mainly used against?

Aerobic gram-negative bacteria

13
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What are the three principal actions of aminoglycosides at the ribosome?

Block initiation, cause mRNA misreading, and block translocation

14
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Are aminoglycosides bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

Bactericidal

15
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What is the most common clinically encountered aminoglycoside resistance mechanism?

Enzymatic inactivation by transferases

16
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What cell entry changes can cause aminoglycoside resistance?

Loss/mutation of porins or failure of oxygen-dependent transport

17
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Why are aminoglycosides usually given IV or IM instead of orally for systemic infection?

They are very poorly absorbed from the GI tract

18
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Are aminoglycosides concentration-dependent or time-dependent killers?

Concentration-dependent

19
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What are the two major dose-limiting toxicities of aminoglycosides?

Ototoxicity and Nephrotoxicity

20
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Which patient factors increase aminoglycoside toxicity risk?

- Older age

- Renal insufficiency

- Prolonged therapy (especially >5 days)

21
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Which diuretic should generally be avoided with aminoglycosides because of toxicity risk?

Loop diuretics

22
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Which seven tetracycline-family drugs are listed in Part II?

- Tetracycline

- Demeclocycline

- Doxycycline

- Minocycline

- Tigecycline

- Eravacycline

- Omadacycline.

23
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What tetracycline derivative is a glycylcycline?

Tigecycline

24
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Which tetracycline derivative is classified as a fluorocycline?

Eravacycline

25
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Which tetracycline derivative is an aminomethylcycline?

Omadacycline

26
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How do tetracyclines inhibit bacterial protein synthesis?

Bind 30S and prevent incoming charged tRNA from binding

27
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Are tetracyclines bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

Bacteriostatic

28
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What are the three tetracycline resistance mechanisms?

- Reduced influx/increased efflux

- Ribosomal protection

- Enzymatic inactivation

29
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What types of ions chelate tetracyclines and reduce absorption?

Divalent cations (Ca2+, Mg2+, Fe2+) and trivalent cations (Al3+)

30
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How should patients take tetracyclines to reduce esophageal irritation?

With a full glass of water

31
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What dermatologic adverse effect is associated with tetracyclines?

Photosensitivity

32
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Why are tetracyclines generally avoided during pregnancy or in young children?

They deposit in developing bones/teeth, causing growth and tooth discoloration problems

33
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How do macrolides inhibit bacterial protein synthesis?

Bind the 50S ribosomal subunit and block transpeptidation

34
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What are four macrolide resistance mechanisms?

- Active efflux

- Ribosomal methylation

- Hydrolysis by esterases

- 50S ribosomal mutations

35
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Which macrolides inhibit CYP3A4?

Erythromycin and Clarithromycin

36
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Which listed macrolide does NOT inhibit CYP3A4?

Azithromycin

37
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What are the main class toxicities of macrolides listed in the lecture?

GI upset and QTc prolongation

38
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Which macrolide has a long half-life and once-daily dosing?

Azithromycin

39
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Which macrolide stimulates motilin receptors to promote GI motility?

Erythromycin

40
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What distinctive adverse effect is associated with clarithromycin?

Dysgeusia (altered taste)

41
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How does chloramphenicol inhibit protein synthesis?

Binds 50S and blocks transpeptidation

42
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What are the major toxicities of chloramphenicol?

- Dose-related anemia

- Aplastic anemia

- Gray baby syndrome

43
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What causes gray baby syndrome from chloramphenicol?

Neonates have insufficient glucuronidation, leading to accumulation of toxic chloramphenicol metabolites.

44
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How does clindamycin inhibit protein synthesis?

Blocks transpeptidation and ribosomal translocation

45
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Why are aerobic gram-negative bacteria intrinsically resistant to clindamycin?

Poor permeability of their outer membrane

46
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What are two major adverse effects of clindamycin?

C. difficile colitis and esophageal irritation

47
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How can patients minimize esophageal irritation from oral clindamycin?

Take with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes

48
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What infections is clindamycin used for according?

Skin/soft tissue infections and anaerobic infections

49
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How does linezolid inhibit bacterial protein synthesis?

Prevents formation of the protein-synthesis initiation ribosomal complex

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Against which bacteria is linezolid bacteriostatic?

Staphylococci and Enterococci

51
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Against which bacteria is linezolid bactericidal?

Streptococci

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What two resistant organisms are key indications for linezolid?

MRSA and VRE

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What blood-related toxicities can occur with linezolid?

Duration-dependent bone marrow suppression and thrombocytopenia

54
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What neurologic toxicities are associated with linezolid?

Peripheral neuropathy and optic neuritis

55
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Why can linezolid cause serotonin syndrome?

It has MAOI-related effects that can interact with serotonergic medicines

56
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What key MAO-related distinction is made for tedizolid?

Tedizolid does not possess MAO inhibition

57
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What are the six fluoroquinolones?

- Ciprofloxacin

- Levofloxacin

- Moxifloxacin

- Delafloxacin

- Gatifloxacin

- Ofloxacin

58
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Which two bacterial enzymes are inhibited by fluoroquinolones?

DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II) and topoisomerase IV

59
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Which fluoroquinolone target predominates in gram-negative organisms?

DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II)

60
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Which fluoroquinolone target predominates in gram-positive organisms?

Topoisomerase IV

61
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Are fluoroquinolones bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

Bactericidal

62
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What are the three fluoroquinolone resistance mechanisms?

- Altered topoisomerase targets

- Increased efflux

- Decreased porin expression

63
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Why are ciprofloxacin oral doses typically higher than its IV doses in the slides?

Its oral bioavailability is lower (~70%)

64
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Which fluoroquinolone has primarily nonrenal excretion?

Moxifloxacin

65
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Why should moxifloxacin not be used for a UTI?

It does not achieve adequate urinary concentrations

66
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Which two newer fluoroquinolones are specifically identified with QTc prolongation?

Levofloxacin and Moxifloxacin

67
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Which methylxanthines can have increased levels and seizure risk with fluoroquinolones?

Theophylline and Caffeine

68
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What ions can decrease oral fluoroquinolone absorption?

Calcium, Magnesium, Iron, and Aluminum cations

69
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Hhow should oral fluoroquinolones be separated from cation-containing products?

2 hours before or 4 hours after products containing these cations

70
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What tendon injury is associated with fluoroquinolones?

Tendinopathy and tendon rupture

71
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What peripheral nerve adverse effect is associated with fluoroquinolones?

Peripheral neuropathy

72
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What blood sugar disturbances are associated with fluoroquinolones?

Hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia

73
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What serious neuromuscular condition can be worsened by fluoroquinolones?

Myasthenia gravis