Medical Gas Systems, Cylinder Safety, and Humidity Therapy

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79 Terms

1
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What is the fire-risk classification of N and CO2?

nonflammable

2
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T/F, O2 is flammable

False

3
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By what means is oxygen for medical use in a hospital most commonly produced?

Fractional distalation

4
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What is the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) purity standard for O2?

99%

5
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Which of the following methods of producing O2 is commonly used in the home care setting?

physical separation (sieve)

6
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Large hospital air compressor systems must be capable of maintaining 50 pounds per square inch gauge (psig) at what flows?

100L/min

7
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T/F, helium is heavier than air

False

8
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What key property of He makes it useful as a therapeutic gas?

Low density

9
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Which of the following gases is used to treat conditions causing hypoxic respiratory failure?

NO

10
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Compressed gas cylinders are manufactured from which of the following?

Seamless steel

11
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Department of Transportation (DOT) regulations require compressed gas cylinders to be hydrostatically tested for leaks and expansion every how often?

5-10 years

12
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During inspection of the shoulder of a compressed gas cylinder, you note a plus sign (+) next to the test date. This indicates what about the cylinder?

It can be filled to 10% above its service pressure.

13
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According to the U.S. Department of Commerce, a gas cylinder that is color coded blue should contain what gas

N2O

14
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According to the National Institute of Standards and Technology of the U.S. Department of Commerce, a gas cylinder that is color-coded brown and green should contain what gas

O2-He mixture

15
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In clinical practice, how is a positive identification made of the contents of a medical gas cylinder?

Reading the cylinder label

16
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Which of the following mechanisms do all compressed gas cylinders use to avoid excessively high buildup of cylinder pressure?

pressure-relief mechanism on the valve stem

17
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Cylinders of liquid gases are filled according to what specification?

filling density

18
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The measured pressure in a liquid-filled cylinder is equivalent to what

the pressure of the surface vapor at any given temperature

19
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When full, a gas cylinder registers a pressure of 2200 psig. After a few hours of use, the pressure gauge reads 550 psig. The cylinder is now how full?

One fourth

20
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What is the usual method of monitoring the remaining contents in a gas-filled cylinder?

read the pressure gauge

21
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To accurately determine the remaining contents of a liquid-filled CO2 cylinder, what would you do?

weigh the contents of the cylinder

22
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One cubic foot of any gas is equivalent to how many liters of gas?

28.30

23
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What cylinder factor is used to compute the duration of flow for a 244 cu/ft (H/K) O2 or air cylinder?

3.14

24
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What cylinder factor is used to compute the duration of flow for a 22 cu/ft O2 or air E cylinder?

0.28

25
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The gauge on an H cylinder of O2 reads 2000 psig. About how long would the contents of this cylinder last, until completely empty, at a flow of 6 L/min?

17 hours 30 minutes

26
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The gauge on an E cylinder of O2 reads 800 psig. About how long would the contents of this cylinder last, until completely empty, at a flow of 3 L/min?

1 hour 15 minutes

27
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ou are planning a patient transport that will take about 1 hours. The patient requires manual ventilation with 10 L/min of O2. What is the minimum number of full E cylinders you would take with you?

2

28
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Structural requirements for the central piping systems that are used in hospitals to distribute gases are established by whom?

National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)

29
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The pressure of O2 or air in a bulk supply system is reduced to what standard working pressure?

50 psig

30
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What is the primary purpose of indexed connector systems?

to prevent inadvertent misconnections between equipment

31
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What is the indexed safety system for threaded high-pressure connections between large compressed gas cylinders and their attachments?

American Standard Safety System (ASSS)

32
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Which of the following is false about ASSS standards?

They provide a separate connector for all gases.

33
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Which of the following statements is FALSE about PISS standards?

The exact positions of pins and pinholes do not vary for each gas.

34
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What is the PISS index hole position for O2?

2 and 5

35
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What safety system is designed to prevent accidental interchanging among low-pressure (less than 200 psig) connectors such as those found on flowmeters and ventilators?

DISS

36
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What device is used to reduce the pressure and control the flow of a compressed medical gas?

regulator

37
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if you had to power a ventilator from a large cylinder of compressed gas, which of the following devices would be required?

reducing valve

38
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If you have to deliver medical gas to a patient from a compressed gas cylinder, which of the following devices would you select to control gas flow?

flowmeter

39
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To clean a cylinder valve outlet of foreign material, what should you do?

Quickly open, then close, the valve.

40
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What is the point in the respiratory track where inspired gas reaches body temperature, ambient pressure, saturated (BTPS) conditions?

isothermic saturation boundary

41
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Which of the following is FALSE about the isothermic saturation boundary (ISB)?

Above the ISB, temperature and humidity increase during exhalation.

42
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What is the primary goal of humidity therapy?

maintain normal physiologic conditions

43
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Indications for warming inspired gases include all of the following except:

reducing upper airway inflammation or swelling

44
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Which of the following inspired conditions should be maintained when delivering medical gases directly into the trachea through an endotracheal tube or a tracheotomy tube?

100% RH at 32° to 35° C

45
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What device adds molecular water to gas?

humidifier

46
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Factors affecting a humidifier's performance include all of the following except:

outlet size

47
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What is the most important factor determining a humidifier's performance?

temperature

48
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The greater the temperature of the gas, the:

more water vapor it can hold

49
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All of the following are true about humidification and contact time except:

Low flows decrease and high flows increase relative humidity output.

50
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Simple unheated bubble humidifiers are commonly used to humidify gases with what type of systems?

oronasal oxygen delivery

51
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What is the goal of using an unheated bubble humidifier with oronasal oxygen delivery systems?

Raise the humidity of the gas to ambient levels.

52
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What is the typical water vapor output of an unheated bubble humidifier?

15 to 20 mg/L

53
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Increasing the flow through an unheated bubble humidifier has which of the following effects?

decreasing the water vapor content

54
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To protect against obstructed or kinked tubing, simple bubble humidifiers incorporate which of the following?

pressure relief valve

55
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A design that increases surface area and enhances evaporation by incorporating an absorbent material partially submerged in a water reservoir that is surrounded by a heating element best describes what type of humidifier?

wick

56
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Advantages of passover humidifiers include all of the following except:

They do not require heating to maintain body temperature, ambient pressure, saturated (BTPS) conditions.

57
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Which type of humidifier "traps" the patient's body heat and expired water vapor to raise the humidity of inspired gas?

heat-moisture exchanger

58
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heat-moisture exchangers (HMEs) are mainly used to do what?

warm and humidify gases delivered to the trachea via ventilator circuits

59
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An ideal heat-moisture exchanger (HME) should have an efficiency rating of at least which of the following?

70%

60
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Which of the following best defines an aerosol?

suspension of liquid or solid particles in a gas

61
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The mass of aerosol particles produced by a nebulizer in a given unit time best describes which quality of the aerosol?

output

62
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Which of the following describes the mass of drug leaving the mouthpiece of a nebulizer as aerosol?

emitted dose

63
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Which of the following is a common method to measure aerosol particle size?

cascade impaction

64
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What measure is used to identify the particle diameter, which corresponds to the most typical settling behavior of an aerosol?

mean mass aerodynamic diameter (MMAD)

65
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What measure is used to describe the variability of particle diameters in an aerosol?

GSD

66
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Most nebulizers used in respiratory care produce which type of aerosol suspension?

heterodisperse

67
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What is the retention of aerosol particles resulting from contact with the respiratory tract mucosa called?

deposition

68
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What is the primary mechanism for deposition of large, high-mass particles (greater than 5 μm) in the respiratory tract?

inertial impaction

69
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Where do most aerosol particles in the 5- to 10-μm range deposit?

upper airways

70
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What is the primary mechanism for central airway deposition of particles in the 1- to 5-μm range?

sedimentation

71
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Where do most aerosol particles in the 1- to 5-μm range deposit?

central airways

72
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Which of the following techniques will increase aerosol deposition by sedimentation in the lungs?

10-second breath-hold

73
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What term describes the primary mechanism for deposition of small particles?

Brownian diffusion

74
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What is the primary fate of inhaled aerosol particles that are between 1 and 0.5 μm?

Most are cleared during exhalation.

75
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All of the following drugs or drug categories have been associated with increased airway resistance and bronchospasm during aerosol administration except:

albuterol

76
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Immediately after firing, the aerosol particles produced by most metered-dose inhalers are about how large?

35 μm

77
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Most of the spray generated by the majority of metered-dose inhalers consists of which of the following?

propellant

78
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When fired inside the mouth, what percentage of the drug dose delivered by a simple metered-dose inhaler (MDI) deposits in the oropharynx?

about 80%

79
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A patient with an acute exacerbation of asthma is not responding to the standard dose and frequency of an aerosolized bronchodilator and is now receiving small-volume jet nebulizer (SVN) therapy every 30 minutes. Which of the following would you recommend to the patient's physician at this time?

Consider continuous nebulization of the drug.