da II exam 3 candy

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88 Terms

1
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which IBD type is increased Th1 (cell mediated/T-cell)?

crohn’s disease

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which IBD type is increased Th2 (humoral)?

ulcerative colitis

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what part of the GI does crohn’s affect?

any part (mostly ileum)

transmucosal

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T/F: crohn’s is the continuous one

false - ulcerative colitis

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can lifestyle changes (how you eat) help IBD?

yes

6
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sulfasalazine (azulfidine) counseling

bone marrow suppression

needs folic acid

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what is the active drug of sulfasalazine?

gut bacteria converts it mesalamine (5-ASA)

8
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sulfasalazine MOA

decreased PG synthesis

decreased inflammatory cytokine production

9
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T/F: purine analogs are the true anti-inflammatories

false - it’s aminosalicylates; the rest are immunosuppressants

10
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purine analog drugs

azathioprine (imura)

6-mercaptopurine (purinethol)

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how do purine analogs work?

decrease DNA synthesis → decrease T/B cell function

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what happens with slow metabolizers that are taking a purine analog?

myelosuppression (absent TPMT → increased TG)

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T/F: purine analogs are useful as anti-inflammatory

false - NO

14
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purine analog DDI

allopurinol → reduce AZA-/6-MP dose to 1/4 to 1/3

15
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what is the active component when describing purine analogs?

6 TG

16
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T/F: 6-TU and 6-MMP are active

false - inactive

17
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infliximab brand

remicade

18
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adalimumab brand

humira

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golimumab brand

simponi

20
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certolizumab pegol brand

cimzia - PEG

21
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T/F: ustekinumab (stelara) is not an anti-TNF

true

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which monoclonal antibody has lower efficacy?

infliximab due to immunogenicity because it is chimeric (about 30% mouse derived)

can trigger anti-drug antibodies that increase drug clearance and reduce efficacy

23
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mAb ADRs

injection-site/infusion (give benadryl or steroid)

reactivation of latent TB

increased risk of infection

cancer/lymphoma

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which drug causes PML?

natalizumab

25
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T/F: an ADR of anti-TNF is peripheral neuropathy

false - it’s an ADR of cyclosporine

26
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T/F: cyclosporine has an ADR of HTN

true

27
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what are the corticosteroids in IBD?

responsive (taper)

dependent (daily low dose → give prednisone)

non-responsive (switch to other drugs)

28
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prednisone ADRs

HTN

osteoporosis

iatrogenic cushing syndrome

hypokalemia

infection

29
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T/F: corticosteroids have ADRs of hypotension and hyperkalemia

false - HTN and hypokalemia

30
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what does ustekinumab (stelara) act as?

IL 12/23 antagonist

31
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what is stelara used for?

IBD

psoriatic arthritis

plaque psoriasis

32
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what is stelara NOT used for?

RA

33
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what do RA interleukins cover?

IL-17

IL-6

IL-1

34
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what is long term effect of stelara?

cancer

35
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what are the integrin receptor antagonists?

natalizumab (tysabri)

vedolizumab (entyvio)

36
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how do integrin receptor antagonists work?

block lymphocytes from migrating into tissue

37
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cyclosporine class

immunosuppressant

calcineurin inhibitor

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cyclosporine MOA

binds cyclophilin → complex with calcineurin → NFAT not formed → decreased IL2 → decreased T/B cells

39
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methotrexate low dose indication

IBD

40
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how is methotrexate administered?

once weekly, PO

41
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methotrexate MOA

inhibits AICAR transformylase (and TYMS) → increased adenosine → decreased IL2 → decreased inflammation

42
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what is DHFR inhibition high dose used for?

cancer

43
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JAK inhibitor

tofacitinib (xeljanz)

44
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drug with -tinib acts as what?

kinase inhibitor

45
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how is tofacitinib administered?

PO

46
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what is tofacitinib used for?

RA

IBD

47
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what are drugs that increase prolactin?

DA antagonists (antipsychotics, metoclopramide, prochlorperazine)

48
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T/F: DA agonists do not raise PRL

true

49
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what are the DA agonists?

bromocriptine

cabergoline

50
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what is the effect of DA agonist?

decrease PRL release

decrease GH in acromegaly

51
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what is the cheapest option but not most effect?

DA agonists

52
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DA agonist ADR

orthostatic hypotension

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who cannot benefit from bromocriptine?

patients with psychosis

54
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cabergoline advantages over bromocriptine

more effective at decrease PRL and tumor size

restores gonadal function

long half life

high selectivity

better tolerated

dosed 1-2 per week

an except question, choose one thats not on the list

55
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which DA is preferred in pregnancy?

bromocriptine, NOT cabergoline

56
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acromegaly drug classes

GH antagonist (pegvisomant)

somatostatin analogs

DA agonists

57
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somatostatin analog agents

octreotide

lanreotide

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how do somatostatin analogs work?

inhibitory

decrease GH/IGF

decrease insulin/glucagon

59
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SSA ADRs

diarrhea/GI discomfort

blood glucose - hyperglycemia in type 2 while hypoglycemia in type 1 (DM)

60
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what are GH related agents?

somatropin (rhGH)

somatomedin (IGF)

61
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T/F: somatostatin is not a GH related agent

true

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somatropin ADRs

intracranial ADRs

insulin resistance/hyperglycemia

63
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which growth hormone receptor antagonist used to treat acromegaly can cause hepatotoxicity?

pegvisomant

64
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spironolactone class

aldosterone (mineralocorticoid receptor) antagonists

65
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spironolactone indication

cushing syndrome

aldosteronism

hirsutism in women

HF

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what does spironolactone NOT treat?

addison’s disease

67
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aldosteronism treatment

spironolactone

eplerenone

amiloride

68
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what drug is not used to treat with aldosteronism?

fludrocortisone - used for addison’s

69
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which hormones are decreased in addison’s disease?

glucocorticoids

mineralocorticoids

sex steroids

70
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signs of addison’s disease

fatigue

hyperpigmentation (high ACTH/MSH)

salt craving

hyperkalemia

low sodium

hypotension

dehydration

71
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treatment for addison’s disease

glucocorticoid (hydrocortisone)

mineralocorticoid (fludrocortisone)

DHEA in women

72
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what are some cholesterol derivatives?

glucocorticoids

mineralocorticoids

sex steroids (progesterone, estrogen, testosterone)

73
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glucocorticoids ADRs

adrenal/growth suppression

HTN

hypokalemia

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T/F: glucocorticoids can cause hyperkalemia

false - NO

75
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what should be given as supplement when taking glucocorticoids?

potassium

calcium

vit d/c/b6

protein

76
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cushing syndrome treatment

steroidogenesis inhibitors - metyrapone (metopirone), mitotane (lysodren), mifepristone (korlym)

ketoconazole/levoketoconazole (recorlev)

osilodrostat (isturisa)

77
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which cushing syndrome treatment is only given in the hospital?

mitotane (lysodren)

78
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mitotane class

adrenolytic

79
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mitotane (lysodren) MOA

cellular destruction of adrenal cortex → adrenal cortex atrophy and decreased cortisol production

80
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how is metyrapone classified?

steroidogenesis inhibitor, not adrenolytic

81
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which neuromodulator works by decreasing ACTH in cushing syndrome?

cyproheptadine (periactin)

82
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mifepristone (korlym) classification

antiprogesterone

glucocorticoid receptor antagonist

NOT steroidogenesis inhibitor

83
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diseases/disorders related to pituitary

hyperprolactinemia

acromegaly

short stature

hypogonadism

84
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diseases/disorders related to adrenal

cushing syndrome

aldosteronism

addison’s

CAH

85
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how does CAH differ from addison’s?

androgens are high (decreased cortisol/aldosterone, increased androgens)

86
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when is CAH diagnosed?

newborns

87
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CAH treatment

glucocorticoid ± mineralocorticoid PRN

crinecerfont (crenessity) - for androgen control

88
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how does crinecerfont work?

CRF-1 receptor antagonist → decreases androgens