Exam 2 Questions Mental Health

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1
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Which theorist linked GAD to a lack of unconditional positive regard in childhood? (A) Sigmund Freud (B) Carl Rogers (C) Aaron Beck (D) Thomas Borkovec

B. Carl Rogers

2
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Which theorist proposed that irrational beliefs contribute to generalized anxiety? (A) Ivan Pavlov (B) Joseph Wolpe (C) Albert Ellis (D) Carl Rogers

C. Albert Ellis

3
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Which theorist emphasized silent assumptions that the world is dangerous? (A) Steven Hayes (B) Sigmund Freud (C) Adrian Wells (D) Aaron Beck

D. Aaron Beck

4
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Who developed metacognitive theory of generalized anxiety? (A) Adrian Wells (B) Thomas Borkovec (C) Carl Rogers (D) Joseph Wolpe

A. Adrian Wells

5
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Who developed the avoidance theory of worry? (A) Carl Rogers (B) Thomas Borkovec (C) Albert Ellis (D) Aaron Beck

B. Thomas Borkovec

6
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Who is especially associated with acceptance and commitment therapy? (A) John Watson (B) Sigmund Freud (C) Steven Hayes (D) Joseph Wolpe

C. Steven Hayes

7
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Which theorist is associated with systematic desensitization? (A) Adrian Wells (B) Thomas Borkovec (C) Carl Rogers (D) Joseph Wolpe

D. Joseph Wolpe

8
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Who emphasized childhood conflicts and inadequate ego defenses as causes of anxiety? (A) Sigmund Freud (B) Albert Bandura (C) Aaron Beck (D) Steven Hayes

A. Sigmund Freud

9
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What is the humanistic treatment associated with Carl Rogers? (A) Systematic desensitization (B) Client-centered therapy (C) Flooding (D) Exposure and response prevention

B. Client-centered therapy

10
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Which technique is characteristic of psychodynamic therapy? (A) Interoceptive exposure (B) Behavioral rehearsal (C) Free association (D) Exposure hierarchy

C. Free association

11
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Which approach primarily targets maladaptive assumptions and dysfunctional beliefs? (A) Humanistic (B) Biological (C) Psychodynamic (D) Cognitive-behavioral

D. Cognitive-behavioral

12
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A person believes that worrying prevents bad things, then worries that worrying will cause illness. Which theory fits? (A) Metacognitive theory (B) Preparedness theory (C) State-dependent learning (D) Self-hypnosis

A. Metacognitive theory

13
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Someone constantly worries because no future outcome can ever be completely certain. Which theory fits? (A) Classical conditioning (B) Intolerance of uncertainty (C) Psychodynamic repression (D) Modeling

B. Intolerance of uncertainty

14
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A person worries to avoid uncomfortable emotional arousal. Which theory fits? (A) Social skills theory (B) Client-centered theory (C) Avoidance theory of worry (D) Preparedness theory

C. Avoidance theory of worry

15
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Which factor does the sociocultural explanation of GAD emphasize? (A) Only unconscious impulses (B) Only GABA receptors (C) Only conditioned stimuli (D) Poverty and threatening environments

D. Poverty and threatening environments

16
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Which neurotransmitter carries inhibitory messages and is emphasized in biological explanations of GAD? (A) GABA (B) Glutamate (C) Acetylcholine (D) Endorphin

A. GABA

17
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Which drug class includes alprazolam, lorazepam, and diazepam? (A) Beta blockers (B) Benzodiazepines (C) Antipsychotics (D) Stimulants

B. Benzodiazepines

18
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Which brain structure helps initiate fear responses in the fear circuit? (A) Medulla (B) Occipital lobe (C) Amygdala (D) Cerebellum

C. Amygdala

19
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Which collection is included in the textbook's fear circuit? (A) Cerebellum, spinal cord, retina, medulla (B) Occipital cortex, cochlea, thalamus, cerebellum (C) Hippocampus alone (D) Amygdala, insula, anterior cingulate, prefrontal cortex

D. Amygdala, insula, anterior cingulate, prefrontal cortex

20
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A student worries uncontrollably about grades, health, family, and money for eight months. Which disorder best fits? (A) Generalized anxiety disorder (B) Specific phobia (C) Panic disorder (D) Dissociative amnesia

A. Generalized anxiety disorder

21
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What is the minimum duration of excessive worry typically required for GAD? (A) Two years (B) Six months (C) Three days (D) One month

B. Six months

22
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Which set contains only GAD-associated symptoms? (A) Hair pulling, skin picking, hoarding (B) Delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech (C) Restlessness, fatigue, poor concentration (D) Flashbacks, fugue, identity changes

C. Restlessness, fatigue, poor concentration

23
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How many of the six associated symptoms are typically required for an adult GAD diagnosis? (A) At least one (B) All six (C) Exactly two (D) At least three

D. At least three

24
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How does fear differ from anxiety? (A) Fear responds to immediate threat; anxiety anticipates possible threat (B) Fear always lasts longer than anxiety (C) Anxiety occurs only during sleep (D) Fear has no physical symptoms

A. Fear responds to immediate threat; anxiety anticipates possible threat

25
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What does comorbidity mean? (A) Avoidance of all social settings (B) Presence of two or more disorders in one person (C) A disorder caused only by genes (D) Symptoms lasting six months

B. Presence of two or more disorders in one person

26
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A person has intense fear of dogs and avoids homes with pets. Which diagnosis best fits? (A) GAD (B) OCD (C) Specific phobia (D) Agoraphobia

C. Specific phobia

27
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Which feature separates a specific phobia from an ordinary fear? (A) A fear response that lasts a few seconds (B) Any fear of heights (C) A dislike of an object (D) Persistent disproportionate fear with distress or impairment

D. Persistent disproportionate fear with distress or impairment

28
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A child learns to fear a dog after being bitten. Which learning process is illustrated? (A) Classical conditioning (B) Self-hypnosis (C) State-dependent learning (D) Unconditional positive regard

A. Classical conditioning

29
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A child becomes afraid of hospitals after observing a parent's fear. Which process is illustrated? (A) Metacognition (B) Modeling (C) Repression (D) Flooding

B. Modeling

30
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A person avoids elevators and immediately feels less anxious. Why is the avoidance strengthened? (A) Extinction (B) Response prevention (C) Negative reinforcement (D) Positive punishment

C. Negative reinforcement

31
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Which model proposes that fear is acquired through conditioning and maintained through avoidance? (A) Humanistic model (B) State-dependent model (C) Dissociative model (D) Two-factor learning model

D. Two-factor learning model

32
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Why are fears of snakes or heights relatively easy to acquire according to an evolutionary explanation? (A) Preparedness (B) Repression (C) Self-actualization (D) Meta-worry

A. Preparedness

33
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A therapist gradually exposes a client to feared situations while the client practices relaxation. Which technique is this? (A) Response prevention alone (B) Systematic desensitization (C) Flooding (D) Free association

B. Systematic desensitization

34
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A therapist immediately guides a consenting client into prolonged exposure to their most feared stimulus. Which technique is this? (A) Dream interpretation (B) State-dependent learning (C) Flooding (D) Client-centered therapy

C. Flooding

35
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What is in vivo exposure? (A) Exposure only through dreams (B) Medication-induced sleep (C) Avoiding the feared stimulus (D) Exposure to a feared stimulus in real life

D. Exposure to a feared stimulus in real life

36
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What is covert or imaginal exposure? (A) Imagining a feared stimulus (B) Directly encountering a real stimulus (C) Taking benzodiazepines (D) Forgetting the feared event

A. Imagining a feared stimulus

37
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A person fears buses, crowds, and leaving home alone because escape or help might be difficult. Which disorder fits? (A) Dissociative amnesia (B) Agoraphobia (C) Social anxiety disorder (D) Body dysmorphic disorder

B. Agoraphobia

38
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For agoraphobia, fear generally concerns how many categories of situations? (A) At least five (B) Exactly four (C) At least two (D) Exactly one

C. At least two

39
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What is the central concern in agoraphobia? (A) Other people may judge one's appearance (B) Objects are contaminated (C) Memories may be lost (D) Escape may be difficult or help unavailable

D. Escape may be difficult or help unavailable

40
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A person avoids class presentations because they fear being humiliated by classmates. Which disorder fits? (A) Social anxiety disorder (B) Agoraphobia (C) Panic disorder (D) Dissociative fugue

A. Social anxiety disorder

41
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Which treatment specifically addresses poor social performance skills? (A) Benzodiazepine withdrawal (B) Social skills training (C) Fugue induction (D) Repression

B. Social skills training

42
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Which thought is most characteristic of social anxiety disorder? (A) I must save every receipt (B) I am watching my body from outside (C) Everyone will think I am foolish (D) I have forgotten my entire childhood

C. Everyone will think I am foolish

43
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Which term describes a sudden discrete episode of intense fear and physical arousal? (A) Obsession (B) Dissociative fugue (C) Compulsion (D) Panic attack

D. Panic attack

44
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Which feature is necessary for panic disorder rather than an isolated panic attack? (A) Recurrent unexpected attacks plus persistent concern or behavioral change (B) Fear only of public speaking (C) Memory loss for childhood (D) Hair pulling

A. Recurrent unexpected attacks plus persistent concern or behavioral change

45
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How long must worry or maladaptive behavioral change following panic attacks last for panic disorder? (A) At least six months (B) At least one month (C) At least one day (D) At least one year

B. At least one month

46
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Someone interprets a harmless racing heart as a fatal heart attack, increasing panic. Which perspective explains this? (A) Sociocultural only (B) Psychodynamic only (C) Cognitive-behavioral (D) Humanistic

C. Cognitive-behavioral

47
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Which method exposes panic-prone clients to feared bodily sensations? (A) Client-centered therapy (B) Fugue therapy (C) Free association (D) Interoceptive exposure

D. Interoceptive exposure

48
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Can panic disorder and agoraphobia occur together? (A) Yes, they may receive separate diagnoses (B) No, they are mutually exclusive (C) Only in children (D) Only after PTSD

A. Yes, they may receive separate diagnoses

49
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An unwanted recurring thought about contamination is an example of what? (A) Flashback (B) Obsession (C) Compulsion (D) Fugue

B. Obsession

50
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Repeated handwashing to neutralize contamination anxiety is an example of what? (A) Depersonalization (B) Panic attack (C) Compulsion (D) Obsession

C. Compulsion

51
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What process helps maintain compulsions in OCD? (A) Unconditional positive regard (B) Extinction through avoidance (C) Positive punishment (D) Negative reinforcement from temporary anxiety reduction

D. Negative reinforcement from temporary anxiety reduction

52
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A person believes thinking about harming someone is as bad as actually doing it. What is this? (A) Thought-action fusion (B) Derealization (C) Preparedness (D) Free association

A. Thought-action fusion

53
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Which treatment exposes clients to OCD triggers while preventing rituals? (A) Dissociative fugue (B) Exposure and response prevention (C) Systematic desensitization with avoidance (D) Client-centered therapy only

B. Exposure and response prevention

54
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Which circuit is highlighted in the biological explanation of OCD? (A) Spinal reflex circuit (B) Auditory pathway only (C) Cortico-striato-thalamo-cortical circuit (D) Visual pathway only

C. Cortico-striato-thalamo-cortical circuit

55
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Which neurotransmitter is targeted by commonly used antidepressants for OCD? (A) Histamine (B) Acetylcholine (C) Endorphins (D) Serotonin

D. Serotonin

56
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How does OCD differ from obsessive-compulsive personality disorder? (A) OCD involves obsessions or compulsions; OCPD involves pervasive rigidity and perfectionism (B) OCD always causes amnesia (C) OCPD is another name for panic disorder (D) They are identical

A. OCD involves obsessions or compulsions; OCPD involves pervasive rigidity and perfectionism

57
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A person repeatedly checks a tiny perceived flaw in their nose and avoids photos. Which disorder fits? (A) GAD (B) Body dysmorphic disorder (C) Hoarding disorder (D) Panic disorder

B. Body dysmorphic disorder

58
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A person cannot discard newspapers because losing them causes severe distress. Which disorder fits? (A) Social anxiety disorder (B) PTSD (C) Hoarding disorder (D) Excoriation disorder

C. Hoarding disorder

59
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Recurrent hair pulling that causes hair loss is called what? (A) Excoriation (B) Agoraphobia (C) Derealization (D) Trichotillomania

D. Trichotillomania

60
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Recurrent skin picking that causes lesions is called what? (A) Excoriation disorder (B) Trichotillomania (C) Specific phobia (D) Dissociative amnesia

A. Excoriation disorder

61
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What does the developmental psychopathology perspective emphasize? (A) Only neurotransmitters (B) Interactions among biological, psychological, and environmental factors across development (C) A single cause for every disorder (D) Only adult life events

B. Interactions among biological, psychological, and environmental factors across development

62
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In Chapter 6, what is a stressor? (A) A type of antidepressant (B) A defense mechanism (C) An event or demand that challenges a person (D) A person's physiological reaction

C. An event or demand that challenges a person

63
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In Chapter 6, what is a stress response? (A) Only the traumatic event itself (B) A specific phobia (C) An intrusive thought (D) The person's reaction to demands or threats

D. The person's reaction to demands or threats

64
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Which brain structure activates the major physiological stress routes? (A) Hypothalamus (B) Occipital cortex (C) Cerebellum (D) Corpus callosum

A. Hypothalamus

65
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Which two routes are highlighted in the fight-or-flight stress response? (A) Cerebellum and spinal cord only (B) Sympathetic nervous system and HPA axis (C) Visual and auditory pathways (D) Parasympathetic system and retina

B. Sympathetic nervous system and HPA axis

66
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What does HPA stand for? (A) Hormonal-panic-avoidance (B) Humanistic-psychodynamic-anxiety (C) Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (D) Hippocampal-prefrontal-amygdala

C. Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal

67
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Which hormone is released from the adrenal cortex during HPA-axis activation? (A) Melatonin (B) Insulin (C) Oxytocin (D) Cortisol

D. Cortisol

68
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Which nervous system division produces rapid increases in heart rate during threat? (A) Sympathetic (B) Parasympathetic (C) Somatic sensory only (D) Enteric only

A. Sympathetic

69
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Which statement best defines a traumatic event in the chapter's PTSD discussion? (A) Any social disagreement (B) Exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violation (C) Any minor everyday frustration (D) Any exam or homework assignment

B. Exposure to actual or threatened death, serious injury, or sexual violation

70
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A trauma survivor has intrusive memories and avoidance for two weeks. Which diagnosis may fit the duration? (A) OCD (B) DID (C) Acute stress disorder (D) PTSD

C. Acute stress disorder

71
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What is the typical duration window for acute stress disorder? (A) More than two years (B) Only the first hour (C) At least six months (D) Three days to one month after trauma

D. Three days to one month after trauma

72
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A trauma survivor has nightmares, avoidance, guilt, and hypervigilance for four months. Which disorder best fits? (A) PTSD (B) Acute stress disorder (C) Specific phobia (D) Trichotillomania

A. PTSD

73
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How long must PTSD symptoms last? (A) Exactly one week (B) More than one month (C) Only one day (D) At least six months

B. More than one month

74
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Which is an intrusion symptom of PTSD? (A) Fear of social judgment (B) Difficulty discarding objects (C) Distressing flashbacks (D) Compulsive hair pulling

C. Distressing flashbacks

75
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Which is an avoidance symptom of PTSD? (A) Persistent checking of appearance (B) Repeated skin picking (C) Fear of public transport alone (D) Avoiding reminders of the traumatic event

D. Avoiding reminders of the traumatic event

76
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Which is a negative mood or cognition symptom associated with PTSD? (A) Persistent guilt or negative beliefs (B) Elevated heart rate alone (C) Collecting possessions (D) Fear of spiders alone

A. Persistent guilt or negative beliefs

77
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Which is an arousal/reactivity symptom of PTSD? (A) Reassurance seeking about appearance (B) Hypervigilance and exaggerated startle (C) Generalized amnesia for all facts (D) Hair pulling

B. Hypervigilance and exaggerated startle

78
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A trauma survivor avoids driving past the site of a crash. Which PTSD symptom cluster does this illustrate? (A) Identity disruption (B) Compulsion (C) Avoidance (D) Intrusion

C. Avoidance

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A trauma survivor repeatedly feels the traumatic event is happening again. What is this called? (A) Compulsion (B) Fugue (C) Meta-worry (D) Flashback

D. Flashback

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Which factor may help protect against PTSD after trauma? (A) Strong social support (B) Complete social isolation (C) Persistent avoidance of all reminders (D) Repeated negative self-blame

A. Strong social support

81
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Which statement about trauma and PTSD is most accurate? (A) PTSD always begins immediately (B) Not everyone exposed to trauma develops PTSD (C) Everyone exposed to trauma develops PTSD (D) PTSD only occurs after combat

B. Not everyone exposed to trauma develops PTSD

82
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Which intervention involves structured confrontation of safe trauma-related memories or reminders? (A) Thought suppression (B) Unsupervised flooding (C) Exposure-based CBT (D) Hoarding reinforcement

C. Exposure-based CBT

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Which community intervention emphasizes immediate practical support after a disaster? (A) Thought-action fusion (B) Interoceptive conditioning (C) Self-hypnosis (D) Psychological first aid

D. Psychological first aid

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What does dissociation involve? (A) Disruption in integrated memory, identity, consciousness, or perception (B) Only increased heart rate (C) Only fear of crowds (D) Only obsessive thoughts

A. Disruption in integrated memory, identity, consciousness, or perception

85
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A person cannot remember important autobiographical events after severe stress without a clear neurological cause. Which disorder fits? (A) OCPD (B) Dissociative amnesia (C) GAD (D) Specific phobia

B. Dissociative amnesia

86
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What is localized dissociative amnesia? (A) Fear of open spaces (B) Feeling that surroundings are unreal (C) Loss of memory for events during a particular period (D) Loss of all motor ability

C. Loss of memory for events during a particular period

87
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What is selective dissociative amnesia? (A) Forgetting every event in one's life (B) Avoiding a crowded bus (C) Having a panic attack (D) Forgetting some but not all aspects of an event

D. Forgetting some but not all aspects of an event

88
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What is generalized dissociative amnesia? (A) Extensive loss of autobiographical memory (B) Forgetting only one detail (C) Feeling detached from surroundings (D) Repeated checking rituals

A. Extensive loss of autobiographical memory

89
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What is continuous dissociative amnesia? (A) Excessive concern with appearance (B) Inability to recall successive events from a particular point onward (C) Fear of blood (D) Recurrent nightmares only

B. Inability to recall successive events from a particular point onward

90
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A person unexpectedly travels away and cannot recall important personal information. What presentation is this? (A) Social anxiety (B) Trichotillomania (C) Dissociative fugue (D) Panic attack

C. Dissociative fugue

91
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A person has two or more distinct identity states along with recurrent memory gaps. Which disorder fits? (A) Depersonalization-derealization disorder (B) GAD (C) Agoraphobia (D) Dissociative identity disorder

D. Dissociative identity disorder

92
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Which explanation suggests memories are easier to retrieve when the current internal state matches the original state? (A) State-dependent learning (B) Preparedness (C) Meta-worry (D) Negative reinforcement

A. State-dependent learning

93
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Which proposed dissociation explanation involves mentally separating distressing material from awareness? (A) Intolerance of uncertainty (B) Extreme repression (C) Flooding (D) Social skills training

B. Extreme repression

94
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Which proposed dissociation explanation involves entering a trance-like state to escape distress? (A) Exposure hierarchy (B) Negative reinforcement of washing (C) Self-hypnosis (D) Classical conditioning of dogs

C. Self-hypnosis

95
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A person feels as though they are watching their own body from outside. Which experience is this? (A) Derealization (B) Hoarding (C) Fugue (D) Depersonalization

D. Depersonalization

96
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A person feels that familiar streets and buildings are dreamlike or unreal. Which experience is this? (A) Derealization (B) Depersonalization (C) Compulsion (D) Panic disorder

A. Derealization

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Which feature often remains intact in depersonalization-derealization disorder? (A) Compulsive washing (B) Reality testing (C) Autobiographical memory always (D) Physical reflexes only

B. Reality testing

98
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How does depersonalization differ from derealization? (A) Depersonalization means loss of possessions (B) Derealization means recurrent panic attacks (C) Depersonalization concerns detachment from self; derealization concerns detachment from surroundings (D) They are exactly the same

C. Depersonalization concerns detachment from self; derealization concerns detachment from surroundings

99
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Which statement best captures the chapter's explanation of stress-related disorders? (A) Only genes determine PTSD (B) Only trauma severity matters (C) Only one neurotransmitter determines dissociation (D) Biology, coping, childhood experiences, and social context interact

D. Biology, coping, childhood experiences, and social context interact