lec 11 v1

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208 Terms

1
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What is the normal blood calcium range?

8.7–10.4 mg/dL.

2
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What is hypocalcemia?

Blood calcium below 8.7 mg/dL; associated with nervous system hyperexcitability and tetany.

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What is hypercalcemia?

Blood calcium above 10.4 mg/dL; associated with nervous system depression and possible cardiac arrest.

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Why must blood calcium be carefully regulated?

Calcium is important in cardiac, nerve, enzyme, and blood physiology.

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What is the body's major calcium reservoir?

Bone.

6
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What are the three organs central to calcium homeostasis?

Bone, kidneys, and intestines.

7
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What is the normal blood phosphorus range in the notes?

3.5–4.0 mg/dL.

8
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Where is the thyroid gland located?

Just below the larynx, with right and left lobes connected by an isthmus.

9
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What is the isthmus of the thyroid?

The tissue connecting its right and left lateral lobes.

10
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What is unusual about the thyroid's hormone storage?

It stores large amounts of its products, about a 100-day supply.

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What is one bone-related action of thyroxine?

Increases osteoblast activity.

12
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What else do thyroid hormones such as thyroxine regulate?

The rate of metabolism.

13
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Which thyroid cells make calcitonin?

Parafollicular cells, also called C or clear cells.

14
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What condition stimulates calcitonin secretion?

High blood calcium.

15
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What is calcitonin's overall effect on blood calcium?

Decreases blood calcium and phosphate levels.

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How does calcitonin affect osteoclasts?

Inhibits their bone-resorbing activity.

17
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How does calcitonin affect osteoblasts?

Increases their activity, increasing calcium uptake into bone matrix.

18
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How does calcitonin affect the kidneys?

Increases calcium excretion in urine.

19
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Why does increased osteoblast activity lower blood calcium?

More calcium is deposited into bone matrix rather than remaining in blood.

20
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Is calcitonin essential for calcium homeostasis?

No; calcium can still be maintained without the thyroid if PTH levels are normal.

21
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Where are the parathyroid glands located?

Embedded on the posterior surfaces of the thyroid's lateral lobes.

22
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Which parathyroid cells secrete PTH?

Principal or chief cells.

23
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What is another name for parathyroid hormone?

Parathormone.

24
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What condition stimulates PTH secretion?

Low blood calcium, below 8.7 mg/dL.

25
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What is the overall effect of PTH on blood calcium?

Increases blood calcium levels.

26
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How does PTH affect osteoclasts?

Increases their number and activity, raising bone resorption.

27
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How does PTH affect calcium handling by the kidneys?

increases the rate of removal of calcium from urine returning it to the blood

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How does PTH affect calcitriol production?

Stimulates formation of calcitriol in the kidneys.

29
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How does calcitriol affect the digestive tract?

Increases calcium absorption from the intestines into blood.

30
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Why can PTH increase blood calcium in three ways?

It promotes bone resorption, renal calcium retention, and calcitriol production.

31
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How do PTH and calcitonin compare?

PTH raises blood calcium; calcitonin lowers it.

32
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What is the vitamin D sequence shown in the slides?

Skin → liver (calcidiol) → kidney (calcitriol, active form).

33
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Which organ makes calcidiol in the vitamin D pathway?

The liver.

34
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Which organ makes active calcitriol?

The kidney.

35
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What is the active form of vitamin D called?

Calcitriol.

36
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How does reduced PTH or calcitriol affect intestinal calcium absorption?

Intestinal calcium absorption decreases.

37
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If calcium exceeds 10.4 mg/dL, what response is shown?

Calcitonin response: less osteoclast activity, more osteoblast activity, and more kidney calcium loss.

38
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If calcium falls below 8.7 mg/dL, what response is shown?

PTH response: more bone resorption, kidney calcium retention, and calcitriol production.

39
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What does negative feedback mean in calcium regulation?

A change in blood calcium triggers responses that return it toward normal.

40
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During low-calcium negative feedback, what acts as a receptor?

Calcium-sensing cells of the parathyroid glands detect the decrease.

41
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During low-calcium negative feedback, what is the hormone signal?

Increased synthesis and secretion of PTH.

42
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During low-calcium negative feedback, which tissues are effectors?

Bone and kidneys; intestinal absorption also increases through calcitriol.

43
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What ends the PTH-driven negative feedback response?

Blood calcium increases toward normal homeostasis.

44
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What is osteitis fibrosa cystica associated with?

Hyperparathyroidism.

45
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Why does hyperparathyroidism weaken bones?

Excess osteoclast activity increases bone resorption and demineralization.

46
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What are the bone changes in osteitis fibrosa cystica?

Demineralized, weakened, deformed bones.

47
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What does RMP stand for?

Resting membrane potential.

48
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What resting membrane potential does the slide use as normal?

About −70 mV.

49
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Why does hypocalcemia make sodium channels easier to open?

Less outside calcium binds negative surface charges, reducing the charge difference.

50
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What happens to sodium channel opening in hypocalcemia?

Channels open more easily and stay open longer.

51
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What happens to sodium entry in hypocalcemia?

Sodium enters cells more readily.

52
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What happens to neuronal excitability in hypocalcemia?

It increases: neurons become hyperexcitable.

53
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What RMP example is shown for hypocalcemia?

About −60 mV, compared with −70 mV normal.

54
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What muscle effects can hypocalcemia cause?

Tremors, spasms, and sustained contractions (tetany).

55
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Why is severe hypocalcemia dangerous for breathing?

Sustained contraction of respiratory muscles can prevent normal breathing.

56
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Why does hypercalcemia make sodium channels harder to open?

More outside calcium binds surface negative charges, increasing the charge difference.

57
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What happens to sodium entry in hypercalcemia?

Sodium entry becomes more difficult.

58
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What happens to neuronal excitability in hypercalcemia?

It decreases: neurons become hypoexcitable.

59
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What RMP example is shown for hypercalcemia?

About −80 mV, compared with −70 mV normal.

60
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What life-threatening cardiac consequence is associated with severe hypercalcemia?

Cardiac arrest.

61
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Hypocalcemia vs. hypercalcemia: which causes hyperexcitability?

Hypocalcemia.

62
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Hypocalcemia vs. hypercalcemia: which causes hypoexcitability?

Hypercalcemia.

63
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If voltage-gated sodium channels open too easily, which calcium disorder fits?

Hypocalcemia.

64
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If a higher voltage is needed to open sodium channels, which calcium disorder fits?

Hypercalcemia.

65
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What are the four main stages of fracture repair?

Fracture hematoma/procallus → soft callus → hard callus → remodeling.

66
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What forms first at the site of a fracture?

A blood clot called a fracture hematoma.

67
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What happens to some bone cells near the initial fracture?

They die at the fracture site.

68
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What is a procallus?

Granulation tissue formed as the fracture hematoma is organized.

69
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What is granulation tissue in the fracture repair notes?

Actively growing connective tissue.

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What is a callus?

A mass of repair tissue bridging broken ends of a bone.

71
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What cell types help form the soft callus?

Fibroblasts and osteogenic cells.

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What tissue makes up the soft callus?

Fibrocartilage.

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How does a soft callus become a hard callus?

Osteoblasts convert it into spongy bone.

74
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What type of bone is in the hard callus?

Spongy bone.

75
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What happens during the final stage of fracture healing?

The callus is remodeled toward the bone's nearly original form.

76
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Why is fracture remodeling necessary?

It restores the repaired area's structure toward its original form.

77
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What is surgical bone grafting?

Putting bone tissue or fragments into a fracture to provide a model for repair.

78
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Where can bone graft material come from according to the notes?

Another body site or a cadaver; living or dead bone fragments are described.

79
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What do pulsating electromagnetic fields aim to stimulate?

Osteoblast activity and bone material production.

80
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how does pulsating electromagnetic fields attract osteoblasts?

Stressed mineral crystals generate small electrical fields.

81
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Which groups are mentioned for electromagnetic fracture treatment?

Athletes and elderly patients.

82
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What kind of fields does the treatment use?

Pulsating low-frequency electromagnetic fields.

83
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How are fields delivered in the described treatment?

Through coils in a computer-controlled therapy mattress.

84
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What reported success rate appears in the notes for electromagnetic therapy?

More than 80% (a claim from the lecture notes).

85
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How are fractures organized in the notes?

By site, nature of the break, and appearance.

86
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What is a closed or simple fracture?

The broken bone does not protrude through the skin.

87
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What is an open or compound fracture?

The bone breaks through the skin and contacts the environment.

88
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Why are open fractures particularly dangerous?

Their contact with the environment increases infection risk, including osteomyelitis.

89
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What is a comminuted fracture?

A bone broken into more than one fragment.

90
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What is a greenstick fracture?

One side of the bone breaks while the other bends.

91
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Why are greenstick fractures especially associated with children?

Children's bones are pliable and may bend rather than break completely.

92
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What is a spiral fracture?

A fracture resulting from twisting or torque through bone.

93
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What is a transverse fracture?

A break across the long axis of a bone shaft.

94
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What is a stress fracture?

A fracture associated with repeated overuse or stress on bone.

95
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Why may early stress fractures heal well?

They may remain nondisplaced with good anatomic alignment.

96
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What is a displaced fracture?

Fragments have changed alignment relative to each other.

97
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What does fracture displacement specifically refer to?

The change in anatomic axis of one fragment relative to another.

98
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How can displacement be measured in the notes?

By shaft width or percentage, such as 50% or 100%.

99
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What is a nondisplaced fracture?

Bone fragments retain normal alignment.

100
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What is a Pott's fracture?

A distal fibular fracture with serious injury to the distal tibial articulation.