Flashcards C-17 PIQ End Of Course Test (Updated)

The APU and EPU supply electrical power to the __________ of the aircraft, respectively.

a) right and left sides

b) left and right sides

c) forward and aft ends

d) aft and forward ends

b) left and right sides

Crewmembers should silence any aural warning as soon as the cause of the warning is recognized.

True

False

True

The transformer/rectifiers perform the function of

a) providing power for APU start.

b) converting DC power to AC power.

c) providing emergency power for the DC buses.

d) converting AC power to DC power.

d) converting AC power to DC power.

When using the DC electrical system, the __________ configuration is the normal mode for operation.

a) split-parallel

b) conversion

c) isolated

d) parallel

a) split-parallel

Which generator buses are the normal sources of power for the battery chargers?

a) 2 & 3

b) 1 & 2

c) 1 & 4

d) 2 & 4

c) 1 & 4

Which of the following buses is always powered even if the battery switch is OFF?

a) Emergency power bus

b) Battery direct bus

c) AC transfer bus

d) DC transfer bus

b) Battery direct bus

Which position of the avionics bus switch (AV BUS) enables automatic load shedding when the aircraft is on the ground with inadequate cooling?

a) ORIDE

b) OFF

c) AUTO

d) OPEN

c) AUTO

Which component(s), during emergency/backup system operations, converts DC power into AC power for the AC emergency bus?

a) Static inverter

b) Battery chargers

c) Emergency power relay

d) AC and DC transfer buses

a) Static inverter

Power for the backup emergency system is provided by the

a) electrical power unit.

b) auxiliary power unit.

c) aircraft batteries.

d) integrated drive generators.

c) aircraft batteries

What should be done if the battery bus fails?

a) Land as soon as possible

b) Recycle the right generator tie bus

c) Continue to flight destination

d) Recycle the battery switch

a) Land as soon as possible

If a GEN OIL caution message appears on the WAP, the corrective action is to

a) increase power on that engine to promote cooling.

b) reduce the electrical load on that generator bus.

c) place that engine in reverse idle to cool the generator.

d) turn the generator off.

d) turn the generator off.

If all generators fail, what becomes inoperative with a subsequent failure of one of the remaining flight control computers (FCC 1 or 4) or IRUs (1 or 4)?

a) Flaps

b) Landing gear

c) Mission computer

d) Yaw damping

d) Yaw damping

When performing the Electrical Fire and Smoke checklist,

a) pause after each step which depowers a portion of the aircraft.

b) do each step in rapid succession.

c) wear asbestos gloves at all times.

d) never pull out any circuit breakers.

a) pause after each step which depowers a portion of the aircraft.

The engine-driven hydraulic pumps provide continuous hydraulic pressure of _____________ psi.

a) 4,000

b) 4,200

c) 4,500

d) 5,000

a) 4,000

The engine-driven hydraulic pumps are located in the

a) respective engine accessory gear box.

b) right aft gear pod.

c) wheel wells.

d) cargo compartment.

a) respective engine accessory gear box.

There is/are _______ engine driven hydraulic pump(s) per system, located on and driven by their respective engine accessory gearbox.

a) one

b) two

c) three

d) four

b) two

The primary purpose of the _____ pump is to assist in landing gear retraction or cargo door/ramp closing in the event of No. 2 or 3 engine loss.

a) auxiliary

b) transfer

c) primary

d) secondary

b) transfer

The RAT, located in the forward right main gear pod, develops enough hydraulic pressure to control the aircraft for

a) takeoff and refueling.

b) emergency refueling.

c) LAPES delivery.

d) all engine-out emergency.

d) all engine-out emergency.

During ground operations, you have been using hydraulic system 1 without any engines running. The MASTER CAUTION light comes on as well as the HYD cue light and a LOW in the Sys 1 Aux pump switchlight. You should conclude that you have

a) low temperature in system 1.

b) asymmetric slats.

c) overpressure condition in system 1.

d) failure of AUX pump 1.

d) failure of AUX pump 1.

Transfer pump automatic shut off may be caused by

a) a low quantity condition in System 2 or 3.

b) overpressure in System 2.

c) a low quantity condition in System 1 or 4.

d) pressure between 3400 and 4000 in System 2 or 3.

a) a low quantity condition in System 2 or 3.

If the hydraulic system pressure increases above 4200 psi, depressurize

a) all PRI, SEC, and AUX HYD pumps.

b) the pumps one at a time.

c) all engine-driven pumps.

d) the transfer and auxiliary pumps

a) all PRI, SEC, and AUX HYD pumps.

The primary source of oxygen for the crew system is _______ liquid oxygen converter(s).

a) one 25-liter

b) one 75-liter

c) two 25-liter

d) two 75-liter

a) one 25-liter

The oxygen crossfeed switch is used to

a) connect the auxiliary system to the passenger system.

b) isolate the passenger oxygen converter.

c) isolate the crew oxygen converter.

d) connect the crew and passenger oxygen systems.

d) connect the crew and passenger oxygen systems.

The CREW OXY LOW warning illuminating on the WAP indicates the oxygen

a) quantity remaining is less than 5 liters or supply pressure is below 60 +/- 5 psi.

b) quantity remaining is less than 7.5 liters or supply pressure is below 75 +/- 5 psi.

c) pressure is below 75 psi.

d) pressure is above 80 psi.

a) quantity remaining is less than 5 liters or supply pressure is below 60 +/- 5 psi.

When positive pressure is required, the oxygen mask must be well fitted to the face to prevent rapid depletion of the oxygen supply.

True

False

True

During normal operation, the oxygen regulator levers will be positioned as follows:

a) SUPPLY lever - ON,

DILUTER lever - 100%,

EMERGENCY lever - Normal

b) SUPPLY lever - ON

DILUTER lever - NORMAL

EMERGENCY lever - NORMAL

c) SUPPLY lever - OFF

DILUTER lever - NORMAL

EMERGENCY lever - NORMAL

d) SUPPLY lever - OFF

DILUTER lever - 100%

EMERGENCY lever - NORMAL

a) SUPPLY lever - ON,

DILUTER lever - 100%,

EMERGENCY lever - Normal

The normal pressure for the passenger oxygen system is

a) 150 - 350 psi.

b) 200 - 375 psi.

c) 250 - 430 psi.

d) 285 - 430 psi.

d) 285 - 430 psi.

The passenger oxygen system contains one _______ liter primary converter and one _________ liter auxiliary converter.

a) 75; 75

b) 75; 25

c) 25; 75

d) 25; 25

a) 75; 75

The oxygen control panel for the passenger/auxiliary oxygen system is located at the ______________ loadmaster station.

a) forward

b) instructor

c) aft left

d) aft right

a) forward

For aircraft with extended range tanks, what is the total fuel load with JP-8?

a) 166,658

b) 172,060

c) 237,888

d) 244,600

d) 244,600

You are transferring fuel from tank 1 to tank 2. The tank 1 transfer pump is on. To complete the transfer, you would press the tank

__________ switchlight.

a) 1 FILL

b) 2 FILL

c) 1 XFER

d) 2 XFER

b) 2 FILL

The inboard tank fuel scheduling system

a) moves fuel from aft compartment to forward feed box in the inboard tanks.

b) requires manual operation if the L or R SCHD light is off.

c) moves fuel from aft compartment to the forward feed box in the outboard tanks.

d) requires manual operation if both L/R SCHD lights are off.

a) moves fuel from aft compartment to forward feed box in the inboard tanks.

The automatic fuel management system is off schedule. Which FUEL MGT light comes on to warn you of this malfunction?

a) L SCHD

b) R SCHD

c) MAN

d) SCHD

d) SCHD

Two caution annunciators illuminate if the fuel quantity falls below 16,000 pounds. One annunciator is located on the warning and caution annunciation panel. Where is the other located?

a) Mission computer display panel

b) Center windshield assembly post

c) Fuel system panel

d) Total fuel indicator

d) Total fuel indicator

If a single tank indicator is inoperative, the TOTAL FUEL LBS indicator shows

a) correct total fuel.

b) a blank window.

c) a series of dashes.

d) estimated fuel.

a) correct total fuel.

If both channels of the fuel quantity system fail, the

a) MASTER CAUTION illuminates along with a FUEL QTY SYSTEM annunciation.

b) MASTER CAUTION light only illuminates.

c) WAP displays a LAND IMMEDIATELY annunciation.

d) loadmaster can use sight gauges in the cargo compartment to determine fuel quantities

a) MASTER CAUTION illuminates along with a FUEL QTY SYSTEM annunciation.

The OBIGGS removes oxygen from the fuel tanks and replaces it with __________ enriched air.

a) helium

b) hydrogen

c) carbon dioxide

d) nitrogen

d) nitrogen

Which of these would cause the OBIGGS to shut down

automatically?

a) Throttles are advanced for takeoff

b) Airspeed is over 80 knots with the gear not up and locked

c) Engine No. 2 or No. 3 is in reverse thrust

d) All of the above

d) All of the above

The fuel dump system dumps fuel at approximately

a) 5,200 pounds per minute.

b) 6,000 pounds per minute.

c) 6,700 pounds per minute.

d) 8,000 pounds per minute.

c) 6,700 pounds per minute.

Above 20,000 feet, fuel __________ may cause engine flameout due to loss of fuel pressure.

a) dump

b) transfer

c) crossfeed

d) venting

a) dump

If a malfunction occurs during fuel dump, fuel dump must be manually terminated to preclude the possibility of

a) a stuck transfer valve.

b) emptying a tank.

c) a vent valve failure.

d) a fuel fire.

b) emptying a tank.

Which valve needs to be set to the CLOSE position when using both fuel receptacles to refuel the aircraft?

a) Left refuel valve

b) Fill valve of tank 4

c) Right refuel valve

d) Separation valve

d) Separation valve

Shut down the refueling operation immediately if the ______during refueling.

a) vent box overfill light comes on

b) vent box overfill light goes off

c) fill valve illuminates OPEN

d) separation valve flow line illuminates

a) vent box overfill light comes on

To continue refuel operations after the HI-LEVEL TEST, set the TEST SELECT switch to the __________ position.

a) NORMAL

b) LAMP TEST

c) DIGIT TEST

d) OPEN

a) NORMAL

The rate of cabin altitude change displayed here is (cabin_press_1100)

a) +500

b) +50

c) -5

d) -500

d) -500

When the crew needs to manually control the flight deck temperature, they use the _________ switch.

a) REMOTE TEMP CONTR

b) FLT COMPT

c) COMPT AIRFLOW

d) AVIONICS COOL ORIDE

b) FLT COMPT

When flying through contaminated airspace, the air used for avionics cooling will be

a) shut off.

b) purified.

c) contaminated.

d) circulated through all compartments.

c) contaminated.

On the ground what warning will the pilots receive if the avionics area temperature gets too high?

a) No warning; system will shut down

b) MASTER CAUTION light, AVIONICS Overheat on the WAP, and the warning horn

c) MASTER WARNING light, AVIONICS

SMOKE on the WAP, and the warning horn

d) MASTER CAUTION light and aural AVIONICS OVERHEAT message

b) MASTER CAUTION light, AVIONICS Overheat on the WAP, and the warning horn

What does the WAP message "ENV PANEL INOP" mean?

a) Both channels of environmental panel have failed, but all controls are still operational.

b) Both channels of the panel have failed, but numeric indicators are still valid.

c) Only one channel in the panel has failed, but the DISAG lights are still accurate.

d) The fire and smoke detectors on the environmental panel are NOT functioning correctly.

a) Both channels of environmental panel have failed, but all controls are still operational.

While performing the cruise checklist you see the MASTER WARNING light and TRIM AIR MANIFOLD on the WAP. At the same time, you hear, "MANIFOLD FAIL." What is your first action?

a) Press the REMOTE TEMP CONTR switch off.

b) Press all ENG switchlights off.

c) Press the TRIM AIR switchlight off.

d) Press the COMPT AIR FLOW switchlight.

c) Press the TRIM AIR switchlight off.

You have an avionics overheat situation while on the ground. If the avionics cooldown requires extensive time,

a) check the green indicator lights on IRU batteries.

b) leave the IRUs on to fully discharge for quicker recharge later.

c) switch to GPS and solar power.

d) turn off the IRUs to prevent draining the batteries.

d) turn off the IRUs to prevent draining the batteries.

If one or more pressure relief valves are open, and if the differential pressure is below 7.8 psid or decreasing, descend to 25,000 feet or less.

True

False

True

Manual pressurization procedures are used if

a) one auto pressurization controller fails.

b) both auto pressurization controllers fail.

c) loss of all generators occurs.

d) either B or C above.

d) either B or C above.

If the cabin is depressurizing slowly due to a small leak, HI FLOW doubles the amount of air entering the cabin and may arrest or reverse depressurization.

True

False

True

During the Smoke, Fire, or Fumes checklist procedures, if the cabin altitude is below _________ feet, the loadmaster must use the emergency regulator to start oxygen flowing.

a) 7,000

b) 10,000

c) 12,000

d) 12,500

d) 12,500

If all four overpressure shutoff valves close while airborne, what system(s) will be lost?

a) Air conditioning only

b) Air conditioning and ice protection system

c) Anti-ice protection only

d) Air conditioning and windshield defog

b) Air conditioning and ice protection system

In case of a manifold failure,

a) there are no visual warnings, but automatic systems take control.

b) the CAWS warning horn gives a warning if the system does not shut down.

c) the manifold fail lights illuminate, and the system shuts down with no other warning.

d) a CAWS atenson sounds, ENV cue appears on WAP, MASTER WARNING light illuminates, and aural messagesounds "MANIFOLD FAIL."

d) a CAWS atenson sounds, ENV cue appears on WAP, MASTER WARNING light illuminates, and aural messagesounds "MANIFOLD FAIL."

The bleed air temperature is __________ by the ESC when the anti-ice system is turned on.

a) increased

b) decreased

c) increased to maximum

d) decreased to minimum

a) increased

What does a CHECK WING A/I message on the MCD indicate?

a) The aircraft has departed icing conditions.

b) Wing anti-ice should be turned off.

c) The aircraft has entered an icing condition.

d) Wing anti-ice selection differs from MCD's TOLD DATA 2.

d) Wing anti-ice selection differs from MCD's TOLD DATA 2.

If the WAP displays BLEED TEMP 1, the pneumatic Shutoff Valve (SOV) has been closed automatically by the ESC due to over temperature.

True

False

True

You are at FL 370 when the left MANIFOLD FAIL light comes on, and the ESC isolates the left manifold. What should you do?

a) No action is required since the manifold is self-sealing.

b) Accomplish the Manifold Failure checklist.

c) Attempt to reset the ESC.

d) Shut off all 4 engine overpressure shutoff valves.

b) Accomplish the Manifold Failure checklist.

The ESC should be able to maintain pressurization and compartment temperature control with a single air conditioning pack operating.

True

False

True

A "MANIFOLD FAIL" aural CAWS may annunciate on the ground with the slats extended and the APU operating.

True

False

True

For normal radar altimeter operation

a) both pilots use RA No. 1 and must manually switch to RA No. 2 when No. 1 fails.

b) both pilots use RA No.1 and automatic switching to No. 2 occurs during failure.

c) the pilot uses RA No. 1 and the copilot uses RA No. 2.

d) the RA switches on the sensor switching panels must be pushed to turn the RA's on.

c) the pilot uses RA No. 1 and the copilot uses RA No. 2.

The RA/BA pushbutton used to select the radar altimeter scale on the PFD is located on the

a) multifunction display.

b) multifunction control panel.

c) automatic flight control system panel.

d) mission communication sensor switching panel.

c) automatic flight control system panel.

Which control is used to display airfields on the ND MAP or CHART? (MFC_V2_config)

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

b) 2

Which control is used to display altitudes associated with waypoints, drop zones, ground reference points, and various types of airports? (MFC_V2_config)

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

a) 1

Which control is used to display the selected route of flight for the secondary flight plan? (MFC_V2_config)

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

d) 4

Which control is used to overlay flight plan symbology on the FSR format? (MFC_V2_config)

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

c) 3

Which control is used to perform a test of the MFD? (MFC_V2_config)

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

d) 4

CAT II message annunciations displayed in the scratchpad

a) indicate that a mission degrading avionic failure has occurred.

b) advise that a condition affecting the operation of the mission computer or COMM system exits.

c) requires a category I scratchpad annunciation be cleared first.

d) indicate that the loadmaster has sent a message from his laptop computer.

b) advise that a condition affecting the operation of the mission computer or COMM system exits.

The "*" symbol next to a line on the MCD screen means that

a) a data entry is required on that line to complete computations.

b) the indicated function will be initiated when the associated line select key is pressed.

c) optional data entries can be made on that line.

d) pressing the associated line select key will put that function in a standby mode.

b) the indicated function will be initiated when the associated line select key is pressed.

An arrow symbol pointing towards data on a line on the MCD screen means that

a) pushing the line select key will enable that function.

b) this is the next line for required data entry.

c) pushing the associated line select key will toggle through the values or choices indicated on the label line.

d) this is the line that will be activated when the DIRECT TO button on the MCK is pressed.

c) pushing the associated line select key will toggle through the values or choices indicated on the label line.

If the mission bus control is lost, navigation emitter control is unavailable from the NAV EMITTER CONTROL and the NAV SENSOR - TACAN/ADF pages.

True

False

True

The mission computer permanent degraded mode will not distract from the normal cockpit flight operations.

True

False

False

Which is NOT an externally supported component of the radio navigation system?

a) TACAN

b) IRS

c) VOR

d) GPS

b) IRS

The AGN VOR is out of service. Which line select key deactivates the AGN VOR for use in the Mission Computer Navigation solution? (MFC_V5_config)

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

c) 3

Which line select key clears the Black-balled function for OSH VOR? (MFC_V5_config)

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

b) 2

The buffer mode is used to provide video for which of the following?

a) skin painting

b) beacon

c) low resolution ground mapping

d) high resolution ground mapping

c) low resolution ground mapping

PWS and Turbulence depiction rely on rainfall processing and are not provided for clear air events.

True

False

True

The AN/APS-150 weather radar system will provide all of the following except

a) PWS (Predictive Windshear).

b) Beacon.

c) Weather Avoidance.

d) Ground Mapping.

b) Beacon.

When the MODE select switch is set in MAP1, the _______ is inhibited.

a) TEST

b) AUTO/MAN Switching

c) GAIN

d) MAP/RDR RNG

b) AUTO/MAN Switching

The MAP1AUTO is displayed in the _________ mode.

a) BEAM

b) VARIABLE

c) BUFFER

d) BEACON

c) BUFFER

When set to MAX, the variable gain is ________ than the sensitivity available in AUTO.

a) greater

b) less

c) dimmer

d) more controllable

a) greater

The MFD can display radar video in which of the following two formats?

a) PFD or PPI FSR

b) PPI or ND MAP

c) ND MAP or PFD

d) PPI FSR or ENG

b) PPI or ND MAP

Which statement concerning the IRU battery(ies) is true?

a) One battery is available for all four IRUs; it will supply 30 minutes of operation to any of the IRUs that need it.

b) The IRUs will run off the aircraft battery if normal power fails; they do not have a separate battery(ies).

c) Each IRU has its own battery which will supply 30

minutes of operation when all other power sources fail.

d) Because the IRUs use ring lasers, no battery is powerful enough to run the lasers; therefore, backup power is not available.

c) Each IRU has its own battery which will supply 30 minutes of operation when all other power sources fail.

To use the stored heading alignment mode in the inertial reference system, you must do a complete _________ alignment prior to shutting down the aircraft.

a) in-flight

b) gyrocompass (GC)

c) BATH

d) attitude

b) gyrocompass (GC)

The BATH alignment is only available when you are beyond the latitudes ________ north or south.

a) 45 degrees

b) 58 degrees

c) 68 degrees

d) 78 degrees

d) 78 degrees

If these symbols appear in the upper left of the ND MAP format, what has been selected for display?

a) Data, NAVAIDs, airports

b) Gross weight, radiation areas, runways

c) NAVAIDs, airports, ground reference points

d) Tactical area, airports, TACANs

a) Data, NAVAIDs, airports

Pressing the SEC PLN pushbutton on the MFC displays the secondary flight plan

a) on the PFD format.

b) on the ND COMPASS format.

c) on the ND MAP.

d) and alternate routing on the PFD format.

c) on the ND MAP.

If a NAVAID is also a waypoint on the flight plan, you can call it up on the ND map DISPLAY by

a) pushing the FLT PLN button on the MFC.

b) selecting FLT PLN on the MCD.

c) pushing the DATA button on the MFC.

d) selecting BCN on the MFC.

a) pushing the FLT PLN button on the MFC.

The course line selected with the CRS 1 for the MAP display represents the

a) recommended course to the next mission computer waypoint.

b) predicted course from your present position to VOR on the ACTIVE side of CNC 1.

c) desired course for the primary flight plan.

d) course selected at the CNC for VOR 1.

d) course selected at the CNC for VOR 1.

If EXCESS appears in the upper right corner of the ND MAP format, it means

a) radar or beacon symbology is enabled and radar/beacon

returns are unavailable.

b) too many symbols have been selected for display.

c) both radar and beacon symbologies are disabled.

d) the additional symbology selected can be viewed on another MFD.

b) too many symbols have been selected for display.

Control panel used for backup communications is located on the

a) aft left loadmaster station communication panel.

b) crew entry panel.

c) forward loadmaster station communication panel.

d) overhead panel.

d) overhead panel.

When the VHF/UHF backup control panel is powered on, the selected communication radio can still be tuned at the CNC.

True

False

False

CCU 2 is a backup controller for CCU 1 so that failure of one CCU has no significant effect on the IRMS.

True

False

True

Frequencies and channels on the bottom line of the STBY side of the CNC are made active using the ________ button.

a) COMM

b) IDENT

c) MODE

d) XFER

d) XFER

The XFER switch on the CNC alternates active (right) and standby (left) frequency or channel and tunes the radio to the new active frequency.

True

False

True

Pressing the GRD (guard selector) button on the CNC immediately replaces the active frequency of the radio displayed with the emergency frequency for that radio.

True

False

True

Which button/switch is selected on the ICS panel when a crewmember detects a failure and automatic CCU transfer has not occurred. (Flash Panel ICS_V1.swf)

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

c) 3