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What are the three major methodological limitations of Correlational Research?
Directionality Problem (unclear if X causes Y or Y causes X), 2. Third-Variable Problem (an unmeasured variable Z causes the association), and 3. Spurious Correlations (associations occurring purely by random chance).
What is Experimental Research and why is it unique?
Experimental research manipulates an Independent Variable (IV) to measure changes in a Dependent Variable (DV) under controlled conditions. It is the only methodology capable of establishing direct cause-and-effect relationships.
What are Cross-Sectional, Longitudinal, and Sequential Research designs?
Cross-Sectional studies different age groups at one time point (vulnerable to cohort effects); Longitudinal tracks the same cohort over time (vulnerable to participant attrition); Sequential tracks multiple age cohorts simultaneously over time to eliminate cohort effects and attrition.
What is Laboratory Observation and its primary ecological limitation?
Laboratory observation places children in structured tasks in controlled environments for high experimental control. Its primary limitation is low ecological validity, as lab settings are artificial and unnatural compared to
What are the required field hours and due date for the Community Engagement Project?
The project requires completing 10hours of field or community work and is due on September 8. Students are instructed to attend office hours to plan goals based on community needs assessments and 'what kids would want'.
How does early adversity impact social capital and economic stability across the lifespan?
Adverse Childhood Experiences (ACEs) cause a loss of social capital and economic stability during childhood that is extremely difficult or impossible to fully restore later in adulthood.
What defines physical, emotional, and sexual abuse under the core ACE categories?
Abuse refers to intentional actions causing direct harm. Physical abuse is purposely causing physical pain/injury; emotional abuse is purposely causing emotional distress, severe verbal degradation, or psychological harm; sexual abuse is any forced or inappropriate sexual contact/exposure.
What defines physical and emotional neglect under the core ACE categories?
Neglect is the failure to provide basic essential needs. Physical neglect is the failure to provide food, adequate clothing, shelter, medical care, or environmental safety. Emotional neglect is the failure to provide emotional warmth, care, validation, or psychological support.
What specific home conditions constitute Household Dysfunction ACEs, and what is the divorce age cutoff?
Household Dysfunction includes caregiver severe mental illness, incarcerated family members, domestic violence against the primary caregiver/mother, household substance abuse (alcohol, illegal drugs, prescription meds), and high-conflict/disruptive parental divorce occurring prior to age 17 (peaceful/low-conflict divorces do not qualify).
What broader environmental and systemic conditions are included in expanded ACE categories?
Expanded ACEs include chronic peer bullying (physical, verbal, social), living in an unsafe neighborhood, town, or school environment, and community instability driven by systemic poverty, community violence, and structural discrimination.
How does chronic ACE exposure alter a child's physiological stress response system and amygdala activity?
Chronic ACE exposure shifts a child's stress response from adaptive acute stress to a persistent static stress response. This causes hyperreactivity in the amygdala (the brain's threat-detection center), leading to chronic hypervigilance, social impairments, and cognitive deficits.
What critical timeframe window applies to brain architecture development, and can destroyed neurons be replaced?
Structural neural pathways become largely set in stone between ages 25–30. Humans do not create new neurons to replace lost ones; neural damage from chronic stress, disease, or substance abuse is permanent ('what is killed off is gone').
What is the critical ACE risk score threshold, and what outcome changes occur at this level?
Accumulating an ACE score of 4 or more exponentially increases the probability of severe negative physical health outcomes, health-risk behaviors, social impairments, cognitive deficits, and early mortality.
How is premature mortality defined in the ACE Lifespan Mechanism Pyramid Model?
Early death in the ACE lifespan model is specifically defined as premature mortality occurring prior to age 65.
What are the 8 structural levels of the ACE Lifespan Pyramid Mechanism in order from conception to death?
Historical Context / Generational Embodiment (at conception)
Local Context / Social Conditions
Adverse Childhood Experiences (ACEs)
Disrupted Neurodevelopment
Social, Emotional, & Cognitive Impairments
Adoption of Health-Risk Behaviors
Disease, Disability, & Social Problems
Early Death (prior to age 65)
What fundamental question shift defines the core paradigm shift of Trauma-Informed Care (TIC)?
TIC requires shifting focus from asking 'What is wrong with you?' (which views issues as character flaws) to asking 'What happened to you?' (which re-frames behavior as an underlying trauma response).
What boundary rule governs a practitioner's access to an individual's personal trauma story?
Practitioners are NOT entitled to demand personal trauma stories from individuals. Instead, practitioners must adapt their own mindset, environmental setups, and clinical approaches to provide trauma-informed support without forced disclosure.
What is the complete causal chain linking childhood trauma to long-term lifespan outcomes?
Childhood trauma brings about altered neurodevelopment (e.g., amygdala hyperreactivity), leading to social, emotional, and cognitive impairments, which prompts the adoption of health-risk coping behaviors, ultimately causing disease, disability, and early death.
What does the Equity-Centered TIC principle of Safety require, including designated safe space guidelines?
Safety requires ensuring physical and emotional security by providing at least 1 designated safe space, avoiding punishment for distress-driven thoughts or coping reactions, and preventing neglect or physical/emotional harm.
How is Transparency applied in TIC when a practitioner does not know the answer to a question?
Trustworthiness & Transparency requires telling the truth consistently. If a practitioner does not know something, they must plainly state the truth ('say the truth if you don't know it') and consistently follow through on commitments.
How is Collaboration & Mutuality applied to power dynamics in a trauma-informed setting?
Collaboration & Mutuality requires partnering with individuals and actively flattening power hierarchies, summarized by the guideline 'don't step on power'.
How can practitioners implement Empowerment, Voice, & Choice in daily practice?
By offering meaningful options (including small choices or options in chores) and actively eliminating structural or institutional barriers related to culture, history, and gender.
What are the 4 R's of Trauma-Informed Practice and their core definitions?
Realize: Understand the widespread impact of trauma and paths to recovery.
Recognize: Identify signs and symptoms of trauma.
Respond: Integrate trauma knowledge into policies, daily practices, and culture.
Resist Re-traumatization: Avoid routines or forced disclosures that trigger trauma memories.
How does the principle of Universal Design apply to Trauma-Informed Care?
Originating from physical accessibility (e.g., wheelchair ramps), Universal Design means creating accommodations for traumatized or vulnerable populations, which ultimately improves accessibility, safety, and functionality for everyone.
How does resilience differ from perfectionism in developmental science?
Resilience is an active, flexible process of continuous adaptation, learning, coping, and perseverance through hardship. Perfectionism is rigid, non-adaptive, and lacks behavioral and emotional flexibility.
How does internal cognitive framing affect individual resilience to life stressors?
Internal belief systems dictate how adversity is processed; for example, framing a crisis as 'God's plan' fosters adaptive resilience, whereas framing it as 'God punishing me' increases distress and lowers coping capacity.
How do structural environmental constraints (such as a food desert) limit individual resilience?
Resilience is constrained by access to structural resources. For example, living in a food desert results in low food resiliency due to systemic lack of resource access, regardless of an individual's personal psychological coping skills.
How do Positive Childhood Experiences (PCEs) interact with an ACE score of 4 or more?
PCEs act as protective buffers that mitigate negative lifespan health outcomes caused by experiencing 4 or more ACEs. While PCEs cannot erase past trauma, they significantly reduce its long-term harm.
What is the minimum number of supportive adults required in a child's life to significantly buffer against trauma?
Having just 1 positive, stable adult in a child's life serves as a critical protective buffer against the negative impacts of trauma.
What are the 8 key Positive Childhood Experiences (PCEs) identified in research?
Speaking openly with family about feelings.
Support from friends.
Family support during difficult times.
Sense of belonging in high school.
Participation in community traditions.
Feeling safe/protected by at least 1 adult in home.
Having at least 2 non-parent adults showing genuine care.
Having at least 1 early, safe, caring relationship.
What is Dr. Sherry Hamby's Resilience Portfolio Concept and Poly-Strengths approach?
The Resilience Portfolio concept states that accumulating sufficient strengths allows individuals to overcome trauma burdens. The poly-strengths approach focuses on mapping a population's full array of strengths rather than solely cataloging deficits or weaknesses.
What are the four poly-strength domains in the Resilience Portfolio Model?
Meaning-Making Strengths: Purpose, value systems, meaning in life.
Regulatory Strengths: Emotional self-regulation, reframing, journaling, deep breathing.
Interpersonal Strengths: Social support networks, relational skills.
Environmental Strengths: Safe physical spaces, green spaces/nature, community safety.
How do twin studies (e.g., 3 Identical Strangers) resolve the Nature vs. Nurture debate?
Identical twins separated at birth share 100% of their genetic makeup (Nature) while experiencing different raising environments (Nurture), allowing researchers to isolate environmental contributions from genetic factors.
What is the distinction between Continuous and Discontinuous developmental theories?
Continuous development views growth as a gradual, cumulative, quantitative process. Discontinuous development views growth as occurring in discrete, qualitative stages (stage theory).
What are the six nested environmental systems in Bronfenbrenner's Bioecological Model?
Individual: Biological traits, age, sex, health.
Microsystem: Immediate face-to-face environments (family, school, peers).
Mesosystem: Connections between microsystems.
Exosystem: Indirect external settings (parents' workplace, social welfare).
Macrosystem: Cultural values, societal beliefs, economic conditions.
Chronosystem: Socio-historical changes and life events over time.
How does systemic influence flow across Bronfenbrenner's ecological levels to impact a child?
Cultural attitudes in the Macrosystem determine policy decisions in the Exosystem, which alter family interaction patterns in the Microsystem, ultimately impacting the Individual child.
What is bidirectionality within Bronfenbrenner's Microsystem?
Bidirectionality means that environmental structures shape the child, while the child actively influences and alters their immediate microsystem environment (e.g., family or school).
What defines Descriptive Research, and what sampling requirement is necessary for its validity?
Descriptive research measures the frequency, prevalence, or ratio of behaviors in a population (e.g., texting while driving). It requires a representative sample (a statistically accurate subset of the broader population).
What fundamental rule governs Correlational Research regarding cause and effect?
Correlation does NOT imply causation. Evaluating a positive or negative bivariate association between variable X and variable Y does not establish that X causes Y.
What is the Directionality Problem in correlational research?
The impossibility of determining whether variable X causes variable Y, or if variable Y causes variable X based purely on correlational association.
What is the Third-Variable Problem in correlational research, and what is a classic example?
An unmeasured outside variable (Z) causes changes in both X and Y. Example: Ice cream sales (X) and crime rates (Y) correlate because high summer temperature (Z) increases both.
What is a Spurious Correlation?
A statistical association between two variables that occurs purely by random chance without any genuine causal or functional connection.
Why is Experimental Research unique compared to descriptive and correlational methods?
Experimental research is the ONLY method capable of establishing direct cause-and-effect relationships by manipulating an Independent Variable (IV) to measure its effect on a Dependent Variable (DV) while controlling extraneous variables.
What are the procedural features, advantages, and limitations of Cross-Sectional Research?
Features: Studies multiple age cohorts at a single point in time (e.g., comparing 2-, 4-, 6-, and 8-year-olds in 2004). Advantages: Fast, cost-effective. Disadvantages: Cannot assess individual growth trajectories over time and is susceptible to cohort effects.
What are the procedural features, advantages, and limitations of Longitudinal Research?
Features: Tracks the exact same cohort across multiple time points over years (e.g., testing same kids in 2004, 2006, 2008, 2010). Advantages: Directly measures true developmental change. Disadvantages: High cost, long duration, and subject to participant attrition (sample loss due to relocation, drop-out, or death).
How does a Sequential Research Design combine cross-sectional and longitudinal methods?
Sequential research studies multiple age cohorts simultaneously over an extended period of time, allowing researchers to differentiate age effects from cohort effects while mitigating participant attrition.
What is Laboratory Observation in child development, and why does it lack Ecological Validity?
It places children in controlled, structured laboratory tasks. It lacks ecological validity because children may alter their natural behaviors in unfamiliar, artificial laboratory
Three major methodological limitations of Correlational Research
Directionality Problem (unclear if X causes Y or Y causes X)
Third-Variable Problem (an unmeasured variable Z causes the association)
Spurious Correlations (associations occurring purely by random chance)
Directionality Problem in Correlational Research
The limitation where it is unclear whether variable X causes variable Y, or variable Y causes variable X based purely on correlational association.
Third-Variable Problem in Correlational Research
The limitation where an unmeasured outside variable (Z) causes the association between variable X and variable Y (e.g., high summer temperatures causing both ice cream sales and crime rates to rise).
Spurious Correlation in Correlational Research
A statistical association between two variables that occurs purely by random chance without any genuine causal or functional connection.
What are the Four Principles of Physical Growth in infancy?
How many neurons are infants born with, and when does synaptic pruning begin?
Infants are born with all neurons they will ever have (100–200billion neurons) but few connections. Rapid synaptogenesis forms billions of connections by age 2, and synaptic pruning of unused connections begins around ages 2–3.
What is myelinization, and what is its full maturation timeframe?
Myelinization is the process where axons are coated with myelin to speed up neural signal transmission. It fully matures between ages 25–30.
What occurs during the Germinal Stage of prenatal development, and what is the implantation failure rate?
Occurs during Weeks 1–2. A sperm fertilizes an egg in the fallopian tube to form a single-cell zygote, which undergoes mitosis while traveling to implant in the uterine wall. Approximately 50–75% of zygotes fail to implant.
What occurs during the Embryonic Stage of prenatal development?
Occurs during Weeks 2–8. Characterized by rapid mitosis and organogenesis following cephalocaudal and proximodistal patterns. The placenta forms to filter maternal blood, deliver nutrients, and remove toxins via the umbilical cord.
What are the key developmental milestones across the fetal stage of pregnancy?
Week 9: Fetal stage begins; Week 12: Sex organs differentiate; Week 18: Fingers/toes differentiate; Week 20: Hearing develops & rapid neuron/glial production; Week 24: Lung viability (emergency C-section possible); Week 29: Rapid brain growth (production, differentiation, migration); Week 32: Bone acceleration; Week 38: Muscle completion; Week 40: Full-term.
What risk determinants influence the severity of damage caused by teratogens?
What is Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder (FASD) and its cause?
FASD is caused by prenatal alcohol exposure. If exposure occurs early in pregnancy, it damages structural organs and causes miscarriages, neurocognitive deficits, and severe behavioral challenges.
What health risks are associated with Gestational Diabetes during pregnancy, and what is its prevalence?
Occurs in 2–7% of pregnant individuals. Causes high maternal blood sugar spikes, resulting in high birth weight (large babies) and infant jaundice (underdeveloped liver causing yellow skin/eyes).
What are the health risks associated with Preeclampsia during pregnancy?
Preeclampsia involves high blood pressure, high levels of protein in the urine (proteinuria), severe headaches, kidney damage, and risk of organ damage or placental detachment.
How do maternal age over 35 and paternal age over 40 affect pregnancy outcomes?
Maternal age over 35 increases risks of chromosomal abnormalities, placenta previa, placental detachment, and miscarriage. Paternal age over 40 increases sperm DNA mutations, raising risks of miscarriage, autism, schizophrenia, and rare genetic disorders.
What are the three stages of childbirth, and when is Pitocin used?
Stage 1 (Dilation): Cervix dilates to 10cm with contractions (longest stage; synthetic oxytocin/Pitocin is used if labor is delayed past 2weeks due date); Stage 2 (Birth): Baby passes birth canal and emerges crowning head-first; Stage 3 (Afterbirth): Placenta detaches and is expelled.
What are average infant birth measurements, growth milestones at 5 and 12 months, and head proportions?
Average birth size: 7lbs and 20inches. Growth: 5months=15lbs; 12months=22lbs. An infant's head accounts for 1/4 of total body length, compared to 1/8 in adulthood.
What is Shaken Baby Syndrome (SBS) and its physiological mechanism?
Violent shaking of an infant causes the brain to impact the skull interior, tearing blood vessels and causing intracranial bleeding. Weak neck muscles cannot support the head, causing severe brain damage or death within seconds.
What are the safe sleep ABCs and average newborn sleep hours?
Newborns sleep approximately 16hours/day (8hours in REM sleep). The ABCs of safe sleep to prevent SIDS are: Alone, on their Back, in a safe Crib.
What three factors constitute the Triple Risk Model of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)?
SIDS occurs when 3 factors overlap: 1. Underlying biological vulnerability (e.g., deficiency in breathing-regulating enzyme BChE or atypical metabolic markers); 2. Critical developmental period (first 6months); 3. External environmental stressor (e.g., soft bedding, prone sleep position).
What are the five essential infant reflexes and their triggers?
What are the six sub-stages of Piaget's Sensorimotor Stage and their age ranges?
What is Object Permanence, and how does modern research modify Piaget's view?
Object Permanence is the understanding that objects continue to exist even when out of sight. Modern research shows it develops more continuously and earlier than Piaget's discrete sub-stage model proposed.
What are the key cognitive characteristics of Piaget's Preoperational Stage (Ages 2–7)?
What are Decentering and Reversibility in Piaget's Concrete Operational Stage (Ages 7–12)?
Decentering is the ability to consider multiple aspects of a situation simultaneously rather than focusing on just one. Reversibility is the logical understanding that physical transformations can be undone or reversed to return to their original state.
What are the durations and memory types in human memory architecture?
Sensory Memory holds raw stimuli for a few seconds; Short-Term Memory holds active data for approximately 20seconds; Long-Term Memory stores unlimited information via Explicit Memory (Episodic personal events & Semantic facts like 2+2 formed in hippocampus/cortex) and Implicit Memory (Procedural skills, priming, conditioning formed in cerebellum/brainstem).
What is Infantile Amnesia and Metamemory?
Infantile Amnesia is the inability of adults to retrieve explicit memories from before age 3 due to brain immaturity in the hippocampus. Metamemory is the conscious awareness and understanding of one's own memory processes, allowing the use of memory control strategies.
What are the primary language acquisition milestones from 12 to 24 months?
First Word: Emerges around 12months (typically nouns); Short Sentences: Two-word combinations emerge around 20months; Vocabulary Spurt: Rapid expansion between 15–24months, where children gain 10–20words/week.
What are Whole Object Constraint, Overextension, Underext
Cephalocaudal Principle
The principle that growth follows a pattern that begins with the head and upper body parts and then proceeds down to the rest of the body (head to toe).
Proximodistal Principle
The principle that development proceeds from the center of the body outward (inside out).
Hierarchical Integration
The principle that simple skills develop separately and independently, and are later integrated into more complex skills (e.g., holding up the head, then core, then sitting).
Principle of Independent Systems
The principle that different body systems grow at different rates (e.g., the nervous system grows at a different rate than muscles).
Synaptic Pruning
The process starting around age 2 to 3 years where the brain eliminates unneeded or unused neural connections.
Myelinization
The process of forming a fatty sheath around nerve fibers that helps neural signals travel quickly, becoming fully developed around ages 25 to 30.
Teratogen
Any environmental factor or agent (such as alcohol, pollutants, or viruses) that hurts or disrupts prenatal development.
Germinal Stage
The initial prenatal stage (weeks 0 to 2) where the sperm fertilizes the egg, forms a zygote, undergoes mitosis, and implants into the uterine wall.
Embryonic Stage
The prenatal stage from weeks 2 to 8, characterized by rapid cell division via mitosis, placenta formation, and growth following cephalocaudal and proximodistal patterns.
Fetal Stage
The prenatal stage beginning at week 9 until birth (weeks 38 to 40), marked by major differentiation of organs, rapid brain growth, and muscle development.
Placenta
A collection of tissue cells attached to the umbilical cord that filters toxins and transfers blood nutrients from the mother to the embryo.
Placenta Previa
A pregnancy complication in which the placenta detaches low or covers the cervix, leading to bleeding.
Preeclampsia
A pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure, high levels of protein in the urine, headaches, and organ damage.
SIDS (Sudden Infant Death Syndrome)
The sudden and unexplained death of a seemingly healthy infant during sleep, mitigated by following the ABCs of sleep (Alone, Back, Crib).
Rooting Reflex
An infant reflex where stroking the baby's cheek causes them to open their mouth and turn their head toward the stimulus for feeding.
Moro Reflex
An infant reflex where a sudden loss of support causes the baby to throw their head back and extend their arms outward.
Adverse Childhood Experiences (ACEs)
Potentially traumatic childhood events—such as abuse, neglect, and household dysfunction—that negatively impact health outcomes, social capital, and economic stability throughout the lifespan.
Toxic Stress Response
A physiological response triggered by severe, prolonged adversity (such as experiencing 4 or more ACEs), resulting in altered brain development, increased amygdala activity, and hypervigilance.
Equity-Centered Trauma-Informed Care
A framework for care centered on safety, trustworthiness, transparency, peer support, collaboration, empowerment, and recognition of cultural, historical, and gender issues.
Resilience
The process and outcome of successfully adapting to challenging life circumstances through mental, emotional, and behavioral flexibility.
Resilience Portfolio
A conceptual framework developed by Sherry Hamby stating that every individual possesses a collection of strengths that can be tapped into to buffer against trauma.
Polystrengths
The presence of multiple strengths across regulatory, interpersonal, meaning-making, and environmental domains that help individuals survive and overcome adversity.
Positive Childhood Experiences (PCEs)
Supportive experiences in childhood—such as family support, peer relationships, or feeling safe at home—that serve as a buffer against adverse health outcomes later in life.
Bronfenbrenner's Socio-Ecological Model
A developmental theory positing that an individual develops within a complex system of nested environmental contexts (Microsystem, Mesosystem, Exosystem, Macrosystem, Chronosystem).