Aseptic and Non-aseptic

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Last updated 1:26 AM on 9/29/26
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89 Terms

1
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This is known as an area free of microorganisms

Sterile field

2
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How is a sterile field obtained?

by placing a sterile drape or by using a sterile pack or tray

3
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When should a sterile field be created?

as close to the time of use as possible

4
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T/F: the sleeves on a gown are considered sterile

True

5
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T/F: anything below the level of the waist is considered unsterile

True

6
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What qualifications must a pack have to be considered sterile?

  • clean and dry

  • unopened

  • has not expired


7
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What is the purpose of a surgical scrub?

to remove debris and microorganisms from the hands, nails, and forearms

8
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T/F: the back of a gown is sterile

False, it is unsterile

9
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How should 2 sterile people pass each other

back-to-back

10
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T/F: before gloves are touched, they are considered sterile

true

11
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Where must sterile gloves be kept?

above the waist

12
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______ is the insertion of a tube into the bladder using aseptic technique

urinary catheterization

13
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What are the 2 types of urinary catheters and explain how they differ?

  • Foley - remains in place with a retention balloon

  • Straight - in and out since it does not remain in place


14
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What is urinary catheterization used for?

  • empty the bladder

  • relieve urine retention

  • introduce drugs or contrast

  • measure urine output

  • relieve incontinence


15
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Where should a urine collection bag be kept?

below the level of the bladder

16
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____ is defined as a break in the continuity of the visceral pleura

pneumothorax

17
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What 3 things can cause a pneumothorax

  • ruptured bleb

  • fractured rib

  • central line insertion error


18
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A ___ pneumothorax is caused by a ruptured bleb and may absorb naturally

simple or spontaneous

19
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A ____ pneumothorax is caused by complications of parenchymal disease or by central venous catheter insertion

secondary

20
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Where do hemothorax and pleural effusion typically accumulate in the lungs and what does this mean for chest tubes?

near the base which means chest tubes are lower

21
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Where does a pneumothorax typically accumulate in the lungs and what does this mean for chest tubes?

higher since air rises which means the chest tube is higher

22
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What is a chest tube connected to?

a water seal drainage unit that contains sterile water or saline

23
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Where does the end of a chest tube have to remain?

below the water level to maintain a seal

24
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What does a water seal do?

prevents air from reentering the chest tube

25
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T/F: you should clamp chest tubes

No, they should never be clamped

26
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If the water seal chamber is bubbling, what should you do?

call the nurse

27
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What were central venous lines originally used for?

  • chemotherapy

  • parenteral nutrition


28
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Now, what are central venous lines used for?

  • drug administration

  • managing fluid volume

  • blood transfusions

  • monitoring cardiac pressures


29
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Where should a central venous line be inserted to?

SVC 2-3cm above the right artrial junction

30
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What does PICC stand for?

Peripherally Inserted Central Catheters

31
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Where are PICC lines inserted?

into the subclavian vein in the antecubital area

32
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____ is also known as a pulmonary arterial line

swanz-ganz catheter

33
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Which type of catheter has a small electrode on the end to monitor pulmonary arterial pressure

swanz-ganz

34
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What is the only catheter line that should be inserted past the SVC?

Swanz-ganz

35
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What type of patients would need implanted ports?

patients with long-term illnesses that require frequent medications or transfusions

36
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Where are implanted ports put?

in the subcutaneous tissue in the chest

37
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How is an implanted port accessed?

by using a Huber needle

38
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__ of ports are inserted incorrectly

1/3rd

39
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What are some major complications of ports being inserted incorrectly?

pneumothorax and hemothorax

40
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____ are electromechanical devices used to regulate the patients heart rate

pacemakers

41
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Which type of patients typically use a pacemaker?

patients with brachycardia

42
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A ____ is a surgical opening in the trachea to provide an airway

tracheostomy

43
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T/F: tracheostomy suction should only be performed by a trained professional

true

44
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Where are tissue drains placed?

at or near would sites when large amounts of drainage are expected

45
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What are the 3 most common tissue drains?

  • Hemovac

  • Jackson-Pratt

  • Penrose


46
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A ____ drain is used to pull excess fluid by constant suction

jackson-pratt

47
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What type of tissue drain is an open drain?

penrose

48
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A ____ drain is a surgical device placed in a wound

penrose

49
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Where is a T-tube placed?

common bile duct

50
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Where is a cecostomy tube placed?

in the cecum

51
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Where is a nephrostomy tube placed?

in the kidney

52
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____ tubes are plastic or rubber and are inserted through the nasopharynx into the stomach

NG tubes

53
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What is the purpose of an NG tube?

  • decompress or remove fluid

  • feeding/nutrition

  • diagnostic purposes


54
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Who can insert an NG tube?

physician or nurse

55
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What are the 2 types of NG tubes and what lumen are they?

Levin: single-lumen

Salen-sump: double-lumen

56
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How can HG tube placement be confirmed?

by x-ray or fluro

57
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T/F: after insertion of an NG tube, the patient should not eat or drink

true

58
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Which type of lumen can be clamped, single or double?

single can be clamped

59
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Who uses urinals?

males who are spine, on their side, or in Fowlers

60
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Who uses bedpans?

non-ambulatory females and males

61
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T/F: when using urinals and bedpans, try to protect the patients modesty as much as possile

True

62
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A cleansing enema is used to promote ____

defecation

63
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When is a cleansing enema used?

prior to a barium enema

64
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T/F: for a barium enema to demonstrate a pathological condition, the colon must be clear and free of decal matter

True

65
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What are the 3 types of cleansing enemas?

  • tap water (hypotonic)

  • hypertonic

  • saline


66
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Which type of cleaning enema is safest since it is the same osmolarity as the interstitial spaces?

saline

67
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___ enema promotes peristalsis and defecation but produces mild irritation

soapsuds

68
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___ enema permits administration of a small volume to be absorbed by the stool and should be retained for one hour if possible

oil retention

69
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What are some ways to prep the bowel for an enema?

low-residue diet, laxatives, and overhydration

70
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Drinking only clear liquids for 24 hours before a barium enema is knonw as

overhydration

71
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____ are used to diagnose pathologic conditions of the large bowel or lower GI tract

barium enemas

72
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T/F: barium absorbs fluid from the bowels so dehydration is possible

true

73
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T/F: after a barium enema, the patients stool is often white

true

74
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T/F: after a barium enema, the patient should increase their fluid intake and fiber

true

75
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A ____ is the formation of a mouth from the bowel to the outside of the body

colostomy

76
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When are permanent colostomies used?

when a portion of the bowel is removed

77
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When are temporary colostomies used?

to heal or rest a diseased portion of the bowel

78
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A ___ is a procedure used to evaluate the large or small bowel that has been connected to the skin with a ostomy

loopogram

79
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What may be needed for patients who cannot independently use a restroom?

urinals and bedpans

80
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What is a stoma?

an artificial opening created between the intestines and the outside of the body

81
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What is a possible complication of a barium enema?

leakage if there is a break in the mucosa

82
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Which type of cleansing enema should not be reguraly repeated due to toxicity or overload

tap water

83
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Is a salem-sump NG tube radiopaque or radiolucent

radiopaque

84
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List in order how an NG tube is inserted

Nose → nasopharynx → esophagus → stomach

85
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Which type of line has a peripheral insertion site but a central destination?

PICC

86
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Broviac, Hickman, Leonard, and Groshong are all examples of…..

central venous catheters or lines

87
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Which intercostal space is a chest tube placed for a pneumothorax?

2nd or 3rd

88
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Which intercostal space is a chest tube placed for a hemothorax?

5th or 6th

89
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A central venous port is typically inserted into which vein?

subclavian/jugular