mi final

What is a medical intervention? Give some examples.

Any measure whose purpose is to improve health or alter the course of disease.-vaccines-rehab-blood transfusion-surgery

What is bioinformatics and what is it used for?

The collection, classification, storage, and analysis of biochemical and biological information using computers especially as applied in molecular genetics and genomics

What is an outbreak?

A sudden rise in the incidence of a disease

Know the difference between antibody and antigen.

Antibody is a protein secreted by plasma cells (differentiated B cells) that binds to a particular antigen and marks it for elimination. Meanwhile an antigen, a macromolecule that elicits an immune response by lymphocytes.

What is the best test to use for testing who patient zero is of an outbreak?

\____DNA cycle sequencing —\>Elisa test_

What technique is the most accurate way to determine the identity of a pathogen?

DNA cycle sequencing is able to get a nucleotide sequence for the pathogen that is infecting patient zero. The steps to DNA cycle sequencing: isolate DNA from the sample, do PCR —\>obtains primers (short segment of DNA or specific segment) which then attached gene to viral DNA, which then generates multiple copies. A segment of DNA is then copied using PCR, segment denatured template strand, primers & polymerase=DNA=free nucleotides. The bases then glow when run through a laser. DNA polymerase then happens, gel electrophoresis where fluorescent tags glow from laser and show specific nucleotides and helps identify the DNA sequence.

What does ELISA stand for? ELISA (Enzyme-linked Immunosorbent Assay)

A quantitative in vitro test for an antibody or antigen in which the test material is absorbed on a surface and exposed either to a complex of an enzyme linked to an antibody specific for the antigen or an enzyme linked to an anti-immunoglobulin specific for the antibody followed by reaction of the enzyme with a substrate to yield a colored product corresponding to the concentration of the test material.

How is ELISA used in an outbreak investigation?

ELISA is able to determine and evaluate a number of patients to check for the presence of antibodies against a virus and bacteria. During this test, a colorogenic substance is added which then interacts with an enzyme and results in a vibrant color change. The color change is able to determine how many antibodies are present among positive patients for those who have more diluted restils, acquire less antibodies meaning they do not have the virus and bacteria that is causing the outbreak.

What is an antibiotic?

A substance produced by or derived from a microorganism and able in dilute solution to inhibit or kill another microorganism.

What are the three defense mechanisms bacteria can possess to combat antimicrobials and how do they work?

Antibiotic is not able to reach its desired target meaning it will not do its job to stop the growth of the bacteria.Not taking recommended amounts on the daily leading to the body become unaware of what is occurring and gaining antibiotic resistance because it will no longer recognize the drug.Decreased permeability of the membrane leading to the antibiotic weakening

Penicillin derivatives (B-lactam):

Inhibits production of peptidoglycan by blocking protein struts present that leads to the cell becoming weak.

Tetracyclines:

Interferes with the process of protein synthesis by crossing the membranes of the bacteria and building up in the cytoplasm. It then sticks to single ribosomes and blocks RNA from occurring. Blocks the attachment of tRNA to the ribosome preventing the continuation of protein synthesis.Broad spectrum antibiotics that can be used on a wide range of agents, exhibiting activity against gram-positive and gram-negative organisms

Sulfonamides:

Stops the process of dihydropteroate synthase that allows bacteria to stop growing. Inhibits the growth of many gram positive and gram negative bacteria; the enzyme that normally binds with PABA binds with this antibiotic resulting in its competitive inhibition resulting in the inhibition of folic acid synthesis.

Fluoroquinolones:

Interferes with DNA replication by inhibiting DNA gyrase that is required for DNA replication and inhibits the action of enzymes such as type ii DNA topoisomerase and topoisomerase IV.Inhibits enzymes called topoisomerase, which maintain the supercoiling of the chromosomal DNA. Used against gram-negative bacteria

Conjugation:

The one way transfer of DNA between bacteria in cellular contact.

Transformation:

The uptake and expression of foreign DNA by a cell.

Transduction:

The transfers of genetic material from one organism (such as a bacterium) to another by a genetic vector.

Where is bacterial DNA located?

Nucleoid

Gram positive:

Lacks an outer membrane, Thick cell wall known as peptidoglycan, Gram stain results in purple color, Shape:long and thing

Gram Negative:

Outer membrane, Thin peptidoglycan , Second cell membrane on top of thin cell wall, Gram stain results in pink color, Shape: small and round

What bacterial structure prevents dehydration and phagocytosis by a host’s immune cells?

Capsule

What is an audiographs and how are they produced? (know how to read audiographs)

Shows the relation of vibration frequency and the minimum sound intensity for hearing. The softest sound a subject can hear is known as the threshold for that frequency. Frequency is show in Hertz (Hz) (x-axis) and hearing in decibels (dB) (y-axis)...no hearing loss 0-20 dB, mild 21-30 dB, moderate 41-55 dB, moderate to severe 56-

pitch (frequency)

\-frequency=vibrations/second or Hertz (Hz)-high pitch=shorter waves -low pitch=longer waves

intensity (amplitude)

is how loud something is and is measured in decibels (dB).

Which structures are associated with conductive hearing loss? What medical interventions are available for patients with conductive hearing loss?

the pinna, external auditory canal, tympanic membrane, and ossicles; hearing aids that are able to be used to amplify the sound and help allow the individual to recollect certain levels of sound.

Which structures are associated with sensorineural hearing loss? What medical interventions are available for patients with sensorineural hearing loss

inner portion of the ear or the auditory nerve. hearing aid or cochlear implants depending on the patient's severity. Cochlear implants are the most common intervention because they are able to help a patient with recognizing some sounds speech that are able to be converted into sound waves into electrical signals which are then transmitted into one or more electrodes implants in the cochlea, then stimulating the auditory nerve.

Explain herd immunity. Why is it beneficial?

When a great number of individuals that are immune decreases the cause of the disease and the occurrence of the pathogen. Due to the greater number of people being immunized it is less likely for someone who is unimmunized will encounter the pathogen. Resulting in “herd immunity” mass vaccination results in indirect protection for those who do not have the vaccine.

What is epidemiology?

A branch of medical science that deals with the incidence, distribution, and control of disease in a population.

What is the difference between passive and active immunity?

Passive immunity refers to when a person receives these antibodies immediately, for example, a newborn baby and a mother. Active immunity is when an individual obtains immunity when the body starts to produce antibodies, such as a vaccine.

What is a vaccine and why are they effective?

A harmless variant of a pathogen that stimulates a host’s immune system to mount defenses against the pathogen. Vaccines are effective because they are derived from biological data and research that is targeted towards a specific pathogen because it presents the immune system with a harmless variant of a pathogen that is able to stimulate the immune system to mount a long-term defense against the pathogen.

Toxoid vaccine:

Prevents diseases that are caused from bacteria that produce toxins in an individual. Toxins are weakened resulting in no cause of illness. Body learns to fight off natural toxin when toxoid is administered

Subunit vaccine:

Includes only essential antigens (not the entirety of the germ) from the disease-causing virus to provoke immunity against it

Live-attenuated vaccine:

Uses a weakened form of the virus or bacteria causing the disease. strong long lasting immune response

Naked DNA vaccine:

Uses a gene from a pathogen to produce an immune response. Results in strong immunity response

Killed vaccine:

Inactivates or kills the germ during the process of making the vaccine. Multiple doses are administered to build up or maintain immunity

Similar pathogen vaccine:

Protects you against a pathogen. Starts with the pathogen and small alteration or a virus that is similar to the virus. Once entered into body the immune system will work efficiently to get rid of invaders

Case-control study:

A type of epidemiologic study where a group of individuals with the diseases, referred to as cases, are compared to individuals without the disease, referred to as controls.

Cohort Study:

A type of epidemiologic study where a group of exposed individuals (individuals who have been exposed to the potential risk factor) and a group of non-exposed individuals are followed over time to determine the incidence of disease.

How is a viral protein produced in order to have enough vaccines for a population?

A viral protein is produced through engineering recombinant bacteria to express the gene which can then build the viral protein, resulting in enough vaccine for a population.

How do you find the attack rate and what is it used for?

Number of people who ate a certain food and became ill/total number of people who ate that food. Attack rate is used for the investigation of small outbreaks of a disease to evaluate the measurement of the spread of the disease.

What is recombinant DNA?

A DNA molecule made in vitro with segments from different sources.

What must be used on the gene donor and plasmid donor when engineering recombinant DNA?

What must be used is a plasmid-based gene that integrates into a plasmid of the organism during the process. As well as a cloning vector, a DNA molecule that has the ability to be replicated in a living cell.

What is an epidemic? Who studies, prevents, and solves epidemics?

Epidemic-affecting an atypically large number of individuals within a population, community, or region at the same time. Epidemiologists investigate health-related matters that include disease outbreaks and chronic illnesses by looking at patterns and examining data. They are then able to determine the cause, create a timelines, and develop solutions such as treatment and measures.

What is the role of DNA ligase in recombinant DNA?

The role of DNA ligase is to join together the formation of newly synthesized DNA in order to form a new DNA strand.

What is the difference between amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling (CVS)?

Amniocentesis is a technique for determining genetic abnormalities in a fetus by the presence of certain chemicals or defective fetal cells in the amniotic fluid, obtained by aspiration from a needle inserted into the uterus. Meanwhile, CVS is a technique for diagnosing genetic and congenital defects in a fetus by removing and analyzing a sample of the fetal portion of the placenta.

What is carrier screening and when would a genetic counselor recommend its use?

Carrier screening is an examination of members of a population to detect heterozygotes for serious disorders. Genetic counselors may recommend it because it is able to determine if someone obtains a particular recessive disease even if it does not show the trait phenotypically.

What is newborn screening and when is it used?

Newborn screening is the analysis of a neonates (fetus) blood for metabolic or genetic disorders to prevent mental retardation, disability or death. It is used when individuals are wanting to prevent these possibilities from happening to their newborn baby.

What is preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) and when is it used?

PGD is a technique that is able to determine genetic abnormalities in an embryo before it is then transferred to the uterus. During this procedure, a single cell is removed from the embryo and examined for any chromosomal abnormalities or abnormal genetic changes. Parents are then able to choose which embryo they would prefer to implant…so this technique is used when parents are looking to have a baby with no chromosomal abnormality.

Single gene disorder:

are caused by changes or mutations that occur in the DNA sequence of one gene

Multifactorial disorder:

caused by a combination of environment factors and mutation in multiple genes

Chromosomal disorder:

where chromosomes have a piece missing or it has been altered

Mitochondrial disorder:

a relatively rare type of genetic disorder that is caused by mutation in non chromosomal DNA of mitochondria

What type of genetic test allows a genetic counselor to visualize chromosome related disorders?

Karyotyping is able to diagnose chromosomal disorder. Karyotypes are pictured of the paired chromosomes of an individual.

What are the reagents in the PCR beads?

PCR beads reagents are DNA polymerase, template DNA solution, and primers.

What do genetic counselors use to track and demonstrate how diseases are inherited over generations in a family?

A pedigree is able to help track and demonstrate how diseases are inherited over generations in a family.

What is PCR used for?

PCR is a technique that involves copying short pieces of DNA and then making millions of copies in a short period of time for further testing.

What are the steps of PCR?

Denaturation:complementary dna strands separate (94-96). Annealing:primers attach to each and of target sequence (50-65). Extension: taq polymerase adds complementary base pairing to primers to build new DNA strand. Repeated about 30-40 times

What does the SNP stand for? Single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP):

One base-pair variation in the genome sequence. SNP’s also help identify an individual's response to a certain durg, toxins, or even the development of a disease.

What lab test can be used to visualize a person’s genotype?

PCR is able to determine the genotype as it is represented by the number of times Haelll has cut the sequence of the gene of interest.

What is the role of primers in a PCR reaction?

Primers are a short strand of RNA or DNA that serves as a DNA synthesis. Primers base pair to their complementary sequence during the annealing portion of the PCR reaction.

Why is Taq polymerase used in a PCR reaction?

The enzyme that catalyzes DNA synthesis.

A fragment of DNA contains four recognition sites for a restriction enzyme. How many fragments of DNA will result after treatment with the enzyme?

Four fragments will be the result after treatment with the enzyme.

What is the cause of DNA fragments to separate in gel electrophoresis?

DNA will move to the positive side during electrophoresis because the phosphate backbone of the DNA and RNA molecule are negatively charged, causing separation.

What is a vector and how are they used in gene therapy?

An agent (as a plasmid or virus) that contains or carries modified genetic material and can be used to introduce extra genes into the genome of an organism. They are used in gene therapy because using a vector (virus) can deliver a gene to the cells where it is needed. Once inside, the cells-gene reading machinery uses the information in the gene to build RNA and protein molecules…protein (or RNA) can carry out their job in the cells.

Explain the Clustered, Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats (CRISPR) systems. Include its origin and use in gene therapy.

Origin is from a naturally occuring genome editing system. CRISPR targets a sequence of DNA in a genome, RNA also then binds to the Cas9 enzyme. RNA Short strand of RNAm one of which matches the sequence of the gene of interest. Cas9 RNA sentinel complex like a pair of scissors that can cut DNA, it makes a double-stranded break in the DNA helix. It can be programmed to recognize particular DNA sequences, and make a break in the DNA at that site. DNA is also able to repair the DNA but is error prone which leads to the ability to replace the mutant gene with a healthy copy. CRISPR-Cas9 can also be tailored to target different genes because the main RNA is able to find and recognize a specific sequence in the DNA, to which they then bind (modified versions of Cas-9), helpful in gene therapy.

What role does Cas9 (nuclease) play in the CRISPR system?

CRISPR-Cas9 has the ability to take a given sequence and cut DNA in any location to then add a new gene, meanwhile traditional gene therapy requires the need for a non viral and viral vector to then inoculate the DNA.

What makes a patient a good candidate for gene therapy?

A good candidate for gene therapy would be patients with genetic disorders.