BOC Study Podcast Questions

David is an incoming freshman football player. as his athletic trainer, you are reviewing his medical hx prior to preseason. which of the following conditions would disqualify him from participation in football?
a. mild hypertension
b. controlled epilepsy
c. inguinal hernia
d. absence of one kidney

Daniel, a track and field athlete reports to the ATR c/o burning, numbness, and shooting pn between third and fourth metatarsal heads. he reports that the pn increases when he wears cleats and decreases when he is sitting or wearing sandals. which of the following conditions is the most likely dx?
a. tarsal tunnel syndrome
b. peroneal nerve palsy
c. Morton's neuroma
d. medial plantar nerve compression syndrome

which football players would most likely be the one to wear cantilevered pads?
a. quarterback
b. running back
c. wide receiver
d. linebacker

cantilevered shoulder pads have a strap that extends form front to back (arch above the tip of shoulder). bc biomechanics athlete who wears this would perform a lot of tackling or blocking

which of the following iontophoresis medications is indicated for tx of inflammation?
a. acetic acid
b. lidocaine
c. dexamethasone
d. lidocaine w/ epinephrine

c - dexamethasone and dexamethasone w/ lidocaine are indicated for inflammation

which of the following pathologies would the placement of a heel cup be beneficial?
a. turf toe
b. jones fx
c. calcaneal contusion
d. spring lig. sprain

c - calcaneal contusion
a heel cup is made of shock absorbing material and compress the fat pad under th heel to provide support and cushioning

name the special test:
pt single leg stand on injured limb w/ foot flat on ground and knee flexed to 5 degrees.
have them externally and internally rotate their femur on the tibia 3x.
repeat test w/ 20 degree flexion

thessaly's - used to identify meniscal lesions depending on the source of pn
- presence of an ACL injury decreases value of this test

2 weeks ago you evaluated your baseball pitcher for a GI virus. he reports now with pn and weakness in both legs and nightly muscle cramps. no fever is present and bilateral reflexes are slightly diminished. which dx should be included in the initial ddx?
a. bell's palsy
b. MS
c. grave's disease
d. guillain barre

d - guillain barre
this is an acute demyelination disorder of spinal roots and peripheral nerves.
sx: bilateral distal mm weakness and decreases reflexes which manifest initially in legs

when fitting a pt w. a shoulder sling, approx what degree should the elbow be positioned?

70 degrees
sling should be used for forearm support when should/elbow/forearm/wrist is damages. sling should be applied with the elbow flexed so the wrist and hand are superior to the elbow jt

if an emergency scenario requiring advanced airway management is anticipated, what emergency medical equipment needs to be readily available?
a. AED w/ extra pads
b. pulse ox
c. OPA
d. epi-pen

c - OPA
airway management supplies include OPA/NPA and suction devices

you are working with Dave, a 35yo construction worker s/p RTC repair. in pts 30 < why is it important to minimize the period of immobilization following RTC repair?
a. increased risk of adhesive capsulitis
b. likely to lose NM control
c. greater strength deficits
d. slower surgical wound healing rate

a - increased risk of adhesive capsulitis
ROM exercises usually begin 7-10 days following RTC repair. if this is delayed and immobilization continues, complications such as adhesive capsulitis may develop, especially in pts 30+

while inspecting an athlete's pupils, you note one is larger than the other. before concluding that this is caused by an injury, what preexisting/congenital condition must be r/o?
a. astigmatism
b. nystagmus
c. anisocoria
d. myopia

c - anisocoria
condition in which pupils differ in size. may be congential or related to trauma. congenital conditions must be r/o to determine if irregularly is due to recent trauma

an athlete has been diagnosed with stenosing tenosynovitis of the first dorsal carpal tunnel. what is another name for this condition?
a. gamekeeper's thumb
b. dequarvain's disease
c. swan neck deformity
d. johnson's disease

b - dequarvain's disease
the thickening of the EPB and APL tendons/sheaths which run through the first carpal tunnel and attach to the thumb. thickening of these structures cause a decrease in the dorsal carpal tunnel

when would a pts seizures be considered paroxysmal?
a. when sx become severe and affect multiple systems
b. when sx are negatively impacting quality of life
c. when sx come and go and are episodic
d. when sx can be attributed to another preexisting condition

c - paroxysmal disorders such as seizures and headaches go away on their own but will return w/o warning

when evaluating the knee, the athlete lays supine w/ quads relaxed. ATC pushes the patella laterally as far as possible without having the jt dislocate. what condition is the ATC trying to r/o?

d - patellar instability
the clinician is performing the apprehension piece of the patellar instability test. a positive test is noted when the quadriceps forcible contract to prevent the patella from dislocating. the second part of the test involves pushing the patella medially to alleviate sx

you are referring your track athlete to the physician for evaluation of chondromalacia. she returns w/ a dx of bipartite patella. what does this dx mean?
a. athlete has congenital abnormality in which the patella develops from 2 centers resulting in 2 parts connected by fibrocartilage
b. athlete has an avulsion fx of the inferior pole of the patella
c. athlete has progressive degeneration of the patella that has developed from excessive maltracking and tendonitis
d. athlete has a patellar stress fx due to the pull of the quads

a - bipartite patella results form a failure of a complete ossification that joins the multiple centers that form the patella. this is a congenital defect and decreases the efficiency of the extensor mechanism of the knee causing pn

during observation of an athlete's hip and pelvis you notice that while the athlete is standing erect, her left ASIS is slightly inferior to her right ASIS. what condition may be associated with this observation?
a. anteriorly rotated left ilium
b. anteriorly rotated right ilium
c. posteriorly rotated left sacrum
d. posteriorly rotated right sacrum

a - anteriorly rotated left ilium
with the position of the left ASIS inferior to the right ASIS, it can be assumed that the bone itself is rotated anteriorly, causing the discrepancy of the two

your jv field hockey coach calls you from an away game to report that their starting guard sustained a blow to the anterior aspect of the lower leg while playing. the player is experiencing localized anterior tibial pn with moderate swelling, discoloration, and point tenderness. which of the following sx would warrant an immediate referral to the emergency department?
a. unable to WB 2 days post-injury
b. footdrop experienced after 12 hours
c. increased pn 6 hours after injury
d. increased swelling 8 hours after injury
e. localized increase in tissue temperature 2 hours after injury
f. distal paresthesia concentrated in the first web space 8 hours after injury
g. no relief of initial pn level 3 days after
h. low-grade fever and increased redness 24 hours after injury
I. distal decreased capillary refill 12 hours after injury

b, f, h, i
s/sx if acute compartment syndrome which are referred to as the 5 p's. pn, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis

what medical term is used to document the pt is demonstrating less than 12 breaths/min during rest?
a. bradycardia
b. tachypnea
c. apnea
d. bradypnea

d - bradypnea

what should the primary focus of the initial phase of a rehab program be?
a. restoring PROM
b. restoring AROM
c. protecting injured tissue
d. facilitating muscular strength

c - injured tissue must have time to heal and be protected to prevent further damage. most injuries will be immobilized in the inflammatory phase to allow the body to properly lay down the foundation so that scar tissue can be remodeled through motion and loading

while evaluating your baseball 1st basemen 6 weeks s/p RTC repair, you assess ROM at the GH jt. what is the normal ROM of flexion w/o scapular elevation?
a. 0-90
b. 0-120
c. 0-135
d. 0-180

b. 0-120
GH jt allows for 120 degrees of forward flexion w/o scapular elevation. when the scapula is allowed to elevate, the normal forward flexion ROM is 180

an athlete w/ medial tibial stress syndrome reports pn along the medial aspect of the tibia and behind the medial malleolus and medial longitudinal arch. what motions should be assessed to determine the mm most likely associated w/ their sx?
a. resisted PF/inversion
b. passive PF/inversion
c. resisted DF/inversion
d. active DF/inversion

a - ATC should suspect involvement of the posterior tibialis mm. the actions of this mm. at the ankle are PF/inversion

while contesting a ball at practice, your basketball player lands on his teammate's foot before falling to the floor. there is an obvious deformity upon examination with one or more possible fxs. what emergency equipment is most appropriate to immobilize this injury?
a. SAM splint
b. stack splint
c. half ring splint
d. vacuum splint

d - a rapid form vacuum splint is most useful for injuries that must be splinted in the position tat they are found such as dislocations and angulated fx

which of the following acute conditions would be most appropriately referred to a primary care sports medicine physician for evaluation and tx?
a. nondisplaced nasal fx
b. traumatic hyphema
c. scapholunate dislocation
d. acute appendicitis

a - a non-displaced nasal fx is not a medical emergency and tx of this conditions falls within the scope of practice of a primary care sports medicine physician

an xc athlete presents to the ATF w/ an erythema migrans that has enlarged over the last few days. she is experiencing mild headache, mm/jt ache, and fatigue. which is most associated with this presentation?
a. mononucleosis
b. tinea corporis
c. syphillis
d. lyme's disease

d. athlete presents w/ the s/sx that may indicate lyme disease. it is important to have the athlete evaluated if this is suspected as antibiotic therapy can help slow the progression of the disease and sx

as running speeds increase, which mm. group's activity increases significantly during both stance and swing phase of gait?
a. hamstrings
b. gastrocnemius/soleus
c. quadriceps
d. tibialis anteriorly

c - with increased running speeds the quadriceps are active through 80% of stance phase acting eccentrically to control knee flexion and concentrically to provide propulsion. the quads work with hamstrings during swing to provide support at the knee

what type of analysis is considered a comprehensive tool to be used in the strategic planning and program review process for an existing AT program?
a. WOTS-UP analysis
b. HCFA analysis
c. samson analysis
d. strength/weakness analysis

a. WOTS-UP analysis allows the AT staff to reflect on and analyze weaknesses, opportunities, threats, strengths, and planning needs of the program

which of the following calcaneal alignments is most commonly observed in athletes with pes planus?
a. calcaneal varus
b. calcaneal valgus
c. calcaneal pronation
d. calcaneal supination