DTR - Practice Exam Study Cards - C Set

A 50 lb. package of frozen turkey that is left on a counter overnight should be:

a. Given to employees.

b. Refrozen

c. Cooked immediately

D. Discarded.

Discarded.

The majority of bacteria grow best in the temperature range of:

a. 40-100 F.

b. 50-110 F.

C. 60-120 F.

d. 70-130 F.

60-120 F.

The time temperature abuse range is between 41-140 degrees. C. is the closest fit in that range.

Please note, the time temperature abuse, as of 2011, range has changed to 41 degrees and 135 degrees Fahrenheit.

The correct order of ware washing in a three-component sink is:

a. rinse, wash, sanitize.

b. dry, wash, rinse.

C. wash, rinse, sanitize.

d. wash, sanitize, rinse.

Wash, rinse, sanitize.

Ready-to-eat breakfast cereal that has been in stock for nearly 15 months is being served. To prevent this form recurring, the dietetic technician should establish inventory procedures that include:

A. Dating all foods upon delivery.

b. Back-dating all the foods on the shelf.

c. Moving old stock to the trayline.

d. rearranging the store room.

Dating all foods upon delivery.

The best way to protect diners from the ciguotoxin (heat resistant) found in some fish is to:

A. Purchase fish from approved supplies only.

b. Purchase frozen fish.

c. Cook fish to 145 F. for 15 seconds.

d. Cross your fingers.

Purchase fish from approved supplies only.

Two cases containing 88 half-pint cartons of milk have been sitting on the counter for a least 2 hours. The temperature range of this product is 55-65 F. The milk should be:

A. Discarded.

b. Use to make puddings.

c. Used to make cream soups.

d. Placed in the fridge.

Discarded.

It should be discarded as a pre-cautionary measure.

The proper temperature of foods on a trayline can be utilized best by checking the temperature of:

a. All food during production.

B. All food prior to serving.

c. One sample food prior to serving.

d. One sample food on trayline once a day.

All food prior to serving.

To decrease E-coli, hamburgers should be cooked to a minimum internal temperature of:

a. 140 F.

B. 160 F.

c. 175 F.

d. 210 F.

160 F.

Fresh meat and poultry should be stored between:

a. 25-31 F.

B. 32-40 F.

c. 41-45 F.

d. 46-50 F.

32-40 F.

Remember that the danger zone is between 41 F. and 135 F.

What chemicals should be used to extinguish an electrical fire?

A. Carbon dioxide and dry chemical.

b. Water and lemon juice.

c. Fire Extinguisher. (common extinguishers use water not the Class C/CO types)

d. Baking Soda.

Carbon dioxide and dry chemical.

Cooked perishable leftover should be chilled to:

A. 40 F.

b. 18 F.

c. 32 F.

d. 45 F.

40 F.

A recent E-coli outbreak could have been avoided if the tainted hamburger had been:

a. cooked to 155 F.

B. cooked to 145 F.

c. cooked to 180 F.

d. cooked to 110 F.

Cooked to 155 F.

• Ground beef/hamburger → 160°F according to the USDA.

• Whole steaks, chops, roasts → 145°F + 3-minute rest.

• FDA Food Code for foodservice → 155°F for 17 seconds for non-intact/comminuted meats.

You don't want to pick 180 F. because even though you are killing the E-coli bacteria, you are overcooking it.

What should the temperature be, at least, of the final sanitizing rinse in a dish machine:

a. 160 F.

B. 180 F.

c. 175 F.

d. 110 F.

180 F.

The evening cook discovers you holding oven to be malfunctioning and as a result, the beef entree temperature is 120 F. After further examination, you decide to throw away the meat fearing foodborne illness due to:

a. E-coli.

b. Monkies.

C. Clostridium Perfringens.

d. Botulism.

Clostridium Perfringens.

Clostridium Perfringens is associated with meats stored at 120-130 F. or meats held at too low of a temp for serving. The general cause is improper storage or holding of meats. Onset: 8-24 hrs. Symptoms: abdominal pain and diarrhea.

A patient with type one diabetes is taking NPH and regular insulin before his morning and evening meal. His blood sugar levels before meals reveal: breakfast 9:00 a.m.: 128; lunch 12:00 p.m. 122; and dinner 5:00 p.m. 275 What should be recommended?

A. Increase morning NPH insulin.

b. Increase morning regular insulin.

c. Decrease insulin.

d. Decrease strawberry creme pies.

Increase morning NPH insulin.

NPH is an intermediate action insulin with a peak effect of 4-10 hours. Increasing NPH could cover food intake 8 hours later at dinner. Remember, regular short acting insulin has a peak of 2-3 hours, so it wouldn't be able to cover dinner. insulin after eating 16-166 max

A patient is experiencing ketosis due to diabetes complications or a reduced PC02. You suspect it may be:

A. Metabolic Acidosis.

b. Metabolic alkolosis.

c. Respiratory acidosis.

d. Respiratory alkolosis.

Metabolic Acidosis.

Is characterized by a reduced PC02 and/or pH. Causes may include starvation, low carb diet, diabetic ketosis.

Metabolic alkolosis- increased pH, causes may include diuretic use or persistent vomiting.

Respiratory answers: has nothing to do with diabetes or ketosis, but with breathing.

7 Day work position based on a 40-hour work week requires how many FTE's (full time equivalent) ?

A. 1.4 .

b. 2.5 .

c. 3.2 .

d. 4.0 .

1.4 FTE's.

1 FTE= 40 hrs/wk (8 hrs/day) for 5 days. 1.4 FTE= 56 hrs/wk.. 8 hrs a day for 7 days.

Hours of work/wk..56/40= 1.4

40 hrs/week + 2 extra days.. 16 hrs= 56 hours total.

OR; 7x8= 56/40= 1.4 FTE's

A major step in the quality improvement process is to:

a. Evaluate employee performance.

B. Identify potential problem areas.

c. Set the stage for solutions.

d. Examine controlled environments.

Identify potential problem areas.

Although evaluating employee performance is important, identifying the areas of needed improvement; problem areas, must be found in order to make the necessary plans for the improvement.

According to the renal diet guidelines: sodium less than 2,300 mg per day, Limit to 2-3 servings of Fruit and 2-3 servings of Vegetables daily. Serving size is 1/2 cup or 4 ounces, unless specified otherwise. (A low potassium food has less than 250 mg of potassium per serving.)

which is a serving from the milk and dairy group?

a. 1/2 c. of evaporated milk.

b. 1 c. of yogurt.

C. 1/2 c. of whole, low-fat, or skim milk.

1/2 c. whole, low-fat, or skim milk.

Milk = ½ cup = 1 renal dairy serving

Which of the following foods from the milk dairy group do you need to avoid? when counting foods that belong to the official USDA MyPlate dairy group.

a. Whipping cream.

B. Buttermilk.

c. Ice cream.

whipping cream.

Low Calcium: Foods made from milk that have very little calcium and high fat content. sour cream counts by the way in the list

“Which of the following meats should you avoid on a sodium-restricted diet?”

A. Bacon.

b. Goose.

c. Crab

Bacon.

According to renal diet guidelines, which of the following vegetables can you eat? aka low potassium item

a. Asparagus.

b. Baked beans.

c. Yams.

Asparagus.

“Which of the following vegetables should you avoid on a potassium-restricted diet?”

a. Green beans.

B. Spinach.

c. Green peas.

Spinach.

Which of the following foods has the most sodium?

a. 1/2 c. of cooked egg noodles.

b. 1/2 c. of cream of rice, prepared without salt.

C. One slice of Italian commercial bread.

One slice of Italian bread.

Which of the following fruit juices should you avoid? In a renal diet etc, patients may need to restrict potassium

a. Apple juice.

B. Prune juice.

c. Cranberry juice cocktail.

Prune juice.

Which of the following fruits can you eat on low potassium diet?

A. Fresh apple.

b. Banana.

c. Cantaloupe.

Fresh apple.

Which of the following beverages can you drink with low potassium and phosphorus?

a. Kool-Aid®.

b. Cola.

c. Beer.

Kool-aid®.

“Which of the following foods is allowed on a potassium-restricted diet?”

a. Chocolate.

b. Molasses.

c. Jam, jelly, or marmalade.

Jam, jelly, or marmalade.