Chapters 2 & 8

Comprehensive practice flashcards covering cell anatomy, cellular transport, respiration, communication, differentiation, adaptation, cellular injury, fluid and electrolyte balance, and dehydration classifications from Professor Gil's Chapters 2 and 8 lecture.

What is the order of anatomic organization?

Cells → tissues → organs → organ systems.

What does the plasma membrane do?

Maintains and protect the cell by creating a barrier that separates the intercellular from the extracellular environment surrounding it which and controls entry and exit of substances.

What is Endoplasmic reticulum rough and smooth er

Rough ER: Has ribosomes attached; produces proteins, including lysosomal enzymes (acid hydrolases).

Smooth ER: Has no ribosomes; produces lipids, lipoproteins, and steroid hormones and regulates intracellular calcium.

What is the Golgi apparatus responsible for?

Modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids.

Which prepares substance produced by the endoplasmic reticulum for secretion out of the cell

What do lysosomes do?

Break down waste materials and recycle cellular components; involved in excretion.

What do peroxisomes do?

Break down fatty acids and generate and degrade hydrogen peroxide.

What do proteasomes do?

Degrade damaged or misfolded proteins as part of protein quality control.

What is the function of mitochondria?

Powerhouse of the cell: produces usable energy in the form of ATP.

What is cytoplasm?

Jelly-like material that suspends organelles and is the location of many chemical reactions.

What does the nucleus do?

Controls cell activities and contains DNA.

What is the cytoskeleton made of and what does it do?

Microfilaments and microtubules; provides cell shape and structural support.

What structures should you identify on the cell diagram?

Plasma membrane, nucleus, nucleolus, nuclear envelope/pore, rough and smooth ER, ribosomes, Golgi, lysosome, peroxisome, mitochondrion, cytoplasm, cytoskeleton, microfilaments, microtubules, cilia, microvilli, vesicles and centrioles.

What is passive transport?

Movement from high to low concentration (down the gradient) without ATP.

What is diffusion?

Movement of molecules from high to low concentration; oxygen can enter cells while carbon dioxide leaves.

What is osmosis?

Movement of water across a semipermeable membrane toward the side with higher solute concentration.

What is osmotic pressure?

Pressure associated with the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane.

What is facilitated transport?

Movement from higher to lower concentration through specific membrane transport proteins, without ATP.

Why is facilitated transport selective?

Each transport protein is specific to certain substances, such as glucose or ions.

Which molecules often need facilitated transport?

Molecules unable to cross the lipid bilayer easily because of size or polarity, such as glucose or ions.

What is active transport?

Membrane carrier proteins or pumps move substances against the concentration gradient (low to high), using ATP.

What is a key example of active transport?

The sodium–potassium pump maintains ion gradients important for nerve and muscle cells.

What happens to ATP when it supplies energy?

ATP is converted to ADP, releasing usable energy.

What is endocytosis?

Energy-dependent process in which a cell takes large substances inside using membrane vesicles.

What is pinocytosis?

Cell drinking: engulfing small droplets of liquid and dissolved substances into vesicles.

What is phagocytosis?

Cell eating: engulfing large particles such as bacteria, cells, or debris.

Which cells perform phagocytosis?

Specialized immune cells including macrophages and neutrophils.

What is exocytosis?

Energy-dependent release of contents outside a cell when vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane.

What roles do Golgi and vesicles play in secretion?

Golgi packages products such as hormones or enzymes; vesicles carry them to the membrane for release.

What sequence removes ingested waste?

Endocytosis forms a phagosome → lysosome fuses for digestion → exocytosis expels waste.

What is cellular respiration?

Metabolic processes that transform fuel molecules, usually glucose, into ATP and wastes including carbon dioxide and water.

What is aerobic respiration?

Uses oxygen; mostly mitochondrial; more efficient; professor lists $36\text{--}38\text{ ATP}$ per glucose.

What is anaerobic energy production?

Without oxygen; cytoplasmic glycolysis provides $2\text{ ATP}$; muscles during intense activity may produce lactic acid.

How much ATP does each aerobic stage produce on the slide?

Glycolysis: $2$; Krebs cycle: $2$; electron transport chain: $32\text{--}34\text{ ATP}$ (traditional slide estimates).

What is cell communication?

Cells send and receive signals to coordinate growth, immune responses, tissue repair, and other functions.

What is receptor–ligand binding?

A ligand such as a hormone or neurotransmitter binds its matching receptor and triggers a response.

What is signal transduction?

The intracellular response triggered by ligand binding to a receptor.

What does negative feedback do?

Helps stabilize cell activity and prevents overstimulation or damage.

What is mitosis?

Produces two identical daughter cells in somatic cells for growth and repair.

What is meiosis?

Produces four genetically unique haploid gametes (sperm or eggs); halves chromosome number.

What is cellular differentiation?

A cell becomes specialized for a particular function, such as muscle, nerve or skin.

What is atrophy and what causes it?

Decreased cell size from reduced workload, disuse, inadequate blood supply or nutrition; e.g., cast immobilization.

What is hypertrophy?

Increase in individual cell size; e.g., enlarged cardiac muscle cells from hypertension.

What is hyperplasia?

Increase in the number of cells; e.g., endometrial growth or increased RBC production at high altitude.

What is metaplasia?

Reversible replacement of one mature cell type with another better able to withstand stress; e.g., squamous cells in smokers’ airways.

What is dysplasia?

Abnormal cell size, shape, uniformity, arrangement and structure; may be precancerous, as in HPV-associated cervical dysplasia.

How do you distinguish the five cellular adaptations in the diagram?

Atrophy: smaller cells; hypertrophy: larger cells; hyperplasia: more cells; metaplasia: changed mature cell type; dysplasia: disorganized abnormal cells.

What is apoptosis?

Controlled, energy-dependent programmed cell death, generally without inflammation; example: removal of fetal finger webbing.

What is necrosis?

Uncontrolled cell death due to injury; rupture causes inflammation and tissue damage; example: myocardial infarction.

What injury does the photograph illustrate?

The image shows severe tissue discoloration and injury; connect the appearance to the chapter discussion of tissue damage and necrosis. Appearance alone cannot confirm a diagnosis.

What is physical cellular injury?

Injury from external forces, such as blunt trauma in a fall or accident.

What is mechanical cellular injury?

Structural stress or force disrupting cell integrity, such as shearing or laceration.

What is thermal cellular injury?

Damage from extreme heat or cold, such as burns or frostbite.

What is chemical cellular injury?

Toxic agents disrupt cell processes, e.g., lead poisoning or strong acids/bases.

What major topic begins in Chapter 8?

Electrolyte imbalance: changes in the levels of charged particles in body fluids.

What are electrolytes?

Electrically charged particles (ions) dissolved in body fluids.

What are cations and anions?

Cations carry positive charges; anions carry negative charges.

What is electroneutrality?

Balance between positive and negative electrical charges in fluid compartments.

Which electrolyte is higher outside cells?

Sodium ($Na^+$), chloride ($Cl^-$) and bicarbonate ($HCO_3^-$) are prominent extracellular ions.

Which major electrolyte is higher inside cells?

Potassium ($K^+$) is the major intracellular cation.

What values are shown on the electrolyte diagram?

Extracellular: Na $135\text{--}145\,mEq/L$, K $3.5\text{--}5\,mEq/L$, Cl $98\text{--}106\,mEq/L$, Ca $8.5\text{--}10.5\,mg/dL$, HCO3 $24\text{--}31\,mEq/L$.

Which electrolyte imbalance names must you recognize?

Hypo- and hyper- forms of natremia (Na), kalemia (K), chloremia (Cl), calcemia (Ca), magnesemia (Mg) and phosphatemia (phosphate).

What are the cues of hyponatremia?

Na $< 135\,mEq/L$: muscle cramps, twitching, weakness, headache, anxiety and altered consciousness.

What are the cues of hypernatremia?

Na $> 145\,mEq/L$: thirst, dry skin and mucous membranes, decreased excretions, headache, restlessness and altered consciousness.

What are the cues of hypokalemia?

K $< 3.5\,mEq/L$: weakness, leg cramps, dizziness, hypotension, arrhythmias, nausea and polyuria.

What are the cues of hyperkalemia?

K $> 5\,mEq/L$: abdominal cramping, flaccid paralysis, severe cardiac disturbances or arrest.

What are the cues of hypochloremia?

Cl $< 98\,mEq/L$: muscle twitching, weakness, tetany, shallow breathing and confusion.

What are the cues of hyperchloremia?

Cl $> 108\,mEq/L$ in table: metabolic acidosis, deep rapid breathing, weakness, headache and impaired cognition.

What are the cues of hypocalcemia?

Ca $< 8.5\,mg/dL$: twitching, cramps, spasms, tetany, seizures, laryngospasm and arrhythmias.

What are the cues of hypercalcemia?

Ca $> 10.5\,mg/dL$: reduced neuromuscular irritability, fatigue, confusion, constipation, nausea and arrhythmias.

What are the cues of hypomagnesemia?

Mg $< 1.5\,mEq/L$: tetany, cramps, seizures, arrhythmias and hypotension.

What are the cues of hypermagnesemia?

Mg $> 2.5\,mEq/L$: reduced reflexes, weakness, flaccid paralysis, hypotension and respiratory depression.

What are the cues of hypophosphatemia?

Phosphate $< 2.5\,mg/dL$: muscle weakness, tremor, paresthesia, weight loss and bone deformity.

What are the cues of hyperphosphatemia?

Phosphate $> 4.5\,mg/dL$: may be asymptomatic; can cause tetany or soft-tissue calcium deposits.

How do hypovolemia and hypervolemia differ?

Hypovolemia: reduced circulating volume. Hypervolemia: expanded extracellular fluid volume.

What are aquaporins?

Special channels in plasma membranes that allow water to move between fluid compartments.

What regulates osmosis?

Concentrations of particles that cannot freely diffuse across the semipermeable membrane.

What is osmolality? What it describes

Osmolar concentration of particles in $1\text{ kilogram}$ of water. And is used to describe fluids within the body

What stimulates thirst?

Increased plasma osmolality or decreased blood volume.

What triggers RAAS?

Triggered by increased plasma or osmolity or decrease blood, volume stimulates fluid, and take vitamin hematosis

What is the RAAS sequence?

Renin: angiotensinogen → angiotensin I; ACE: angiotensin I → II; vasoconstriction and aldosterone release.

What does aldosterone do?

Promotes renal sodium and water retention by the kidney

What triggers ADH and what does it do?

Increased osmolality or low blood volume; released from posterior pituitary to promote kidney water reabsorption and concentrated urine.

What do diuretics do?

Medication that promote fluid loss via urine used to create hypertension, edema, and fluid override example furosemide and HCTZ

What describe tonicity/osmotic/tension

pressure gradient across a separate membrane that affects water movement and cell size.

What is an isotonic solution? What is an example of it ?

Equal effective solute concentration inside and outside the cell; balanced osmotic forces.

Example: 0.9 sodium chloride normal saline

What is a hypotonic solution?

Lower solute concentration outside cell; which cause water enters and cell swells or bursts. Example: 0.45% sodium chloride

What is a hypertonic solution?

Higher solute concentration outside cell; water moves out of the cell towards the more concentrated solution, causing the cell to shrink or shrivel. An example of a hypertonic solution is 3% sodium chloride.

How does increased hydrostatic pressure cause edema?

This occurs when there is too much pressure inside the blood vessels, pushing fluid out into the tissues. It’s commonly seen in conditions like heart failure or venous obstruction.

How does decreased oncotic oncotic pressure cause edema?

Low plasma proteins (albumin) reduce the pull of fluid back into capillaries, causing fluid to remain in tissues and produce edema (swelliNg)

How does increased capillary permeability cause edema?

Inflamed or injured capillaries leak fluid and proteins into tissues; examples: burns, trauma, allergy.

How does lymphatic obstruction cause edema?

When lymphatic vessels are blocked or damaged, they can’t drain excessive fluid which leads to localized Swelling this can happen after surgery infection like filariasis or cancer breast cancer surgery, causing lymphedema in the arm

What is hypervolemia?

Expansion of extracellular volume in vascular or interstitial spaces.

recognizing cues of hypervolemia?

Hypertension, bounding pulses, muscle weakness, cramps, fatigue, headache, confusion, altered consciousness and depressed of deep tendon reflexes DTRs.

What causes dehydration?

Decreased fluid intake, increased fluid output such as diarrhea, or shifts between fluid compartments such as ascites.

What are the three dehydration categories?

Hyponatremic, isonatremic and hypernatremic.

hyponatremic dehydration?

Type of fluid loss

Fluid shifts

Type of fluid Fluid Loss:hypertonic

Frequency of diagnosis, 5% to 10%

Fluid shifts:Extracular to intravascular

Isonatremic dehydration?

Type of fluid:

Fluid shifts:

Frequency of diagnosis

Type of fluid:Isotonic

Fluid shifts:none

Frequency of diagnosis 80%

Hypertonic

Type of fluid loss

Fluid shift

Frequency of diagnosis

Type of fluid loss: Hypertonic

Fluid shift : Intravascular to Extravacular

Frequency of diagnosis 5 to 10%

What initial physical cues suggest dehydration?

Thirst, dry mucous membranes, weight loss, flattened neck veins, reduced skin turgor and prolonged capillary refill more than 3 seconds

What later cues suggest dehydration?

Decreased/absent urine, increased heart rate, low blood pressure, altered consciousness, sunken eyes and depressed infant fontanelles.( area not enclosed by cranium or soft spots on infant heads