D5 content

Which of the following are considered disablement models? (Select all that apply)

ICF; NAGI model

Match the sport to its classification: Weight lifting

Non contact

Match the sport to its classification: Soccer

Full Contact/Collision

Match the sport to its classification: Wrestling

Full Contact/Collision

Match the sport to its classification: Gymnastics

Limited Contact

In SOAP documentation, what does Objective mean?

What the clinician sees, feels, or evaluates

In SOAP documentation, what does Plan mean?

Course of action (treatment plans)

In SOAP documentation, what does Subjective mean?

What the athlete tells you

In SOAP documentation, what does Assessment mean?

Diagnosis

Which coding system identifies procedures completed for insurance billing?

CPT

Which law requires qualified applicants to receive equal consideration regardless of age, sex, race, sexual orientation, disability, religion, or nationality?

Equal Employment Opportunity Act

Which PICO component allows the clinician to examine possible treatment options?

Interventions

The athletic trainer works in collaboration with and under the supervision of whom, who directs the athlete's total health care?

Physician

What regulates how people with private health information can share it?

HIPAA

Who has the right to sport disqualification, according to the quiz?

Coach

What comprehensive tool is used in strategic planning and program review for an existing athletic training program?

WOTS-UP analysis

An athletic trainer uses a therapeutic modality in a contraindicated manner. What type of negligence is this?

Misfeasance

What document serves as a record of an injury for future reference?

Injury report

What document records re-evaluations of injuries in a consistent format?

Progress note

What document records the daily services a patient receives in an athletic training facility?

Patient Treatment log

ICF category: Isolated from teammates

Environmental Factors

ICF category: Age 19

Personal Factors

ICF category: Decreased range of motion

Body Functions and Structures

ICF category: Cannot compete as midfielder on soccer team

Participation Restrictions

ICF category: Female

Personal Factors

ICF category: Inability to cut or run

Activity Limitations

How often should electrical equipment be reevaluated or calibrated?

Every year or based on manufacturer recommendations

What does evidence-based practice mean?

Essay question in the quiz; no answer was provided in the results

Credential: DO

Osteopath

Credential: OT

Occupational Therapist

Credential: PT

Physical Therapist

Credential: EMT

Emergency Medical Technician

Credential: DPM

Podiatrist

Credential: RN

Registered Nurse

Credential: RD

Registered Dietician

Credential: DC

Chiropractor

Credential: PA

Physician Assistant

Credential: DDS/DMD

Dentist

Credential: MD

Physician

Credential: CSCS

Strength and Conditioning Specialist

Product category: Treatment table

Nonconsumable capital equipment

Product category: Crutches

Capital equipment

Product category: Ice machine

Nonconsumable capital equipment

Product category: Electrical modality

Nonconsumable capital equipment

Product category: Athletic training kit

Capital equipment

Product category: Compression wraps

Nonexpendable supply

What is the difference between an athletics model and a medical model in delivering athletic training services?

Essay question in the quiz; no answer was provided in the results

Which organization accredits entry-level athletic training education programs?

CAATE

Which condition must be established to prove negligence, according to the quiz?

Damages occurred as a result of the athletic trainer's actions

Which databases are useful for athletic trainers finding current research? (Select all that apply)

SportsDiscus; EBSCO; PubMed/MEDLINE; Google Scholar

Contacting several vendors to purchase bulk tape is an example of what?

Competitive bidding

Which organization was established in 1938 to provide athletic trainers with patient-care resources and statements?

NATA

What does the C stand for in PICO?

Comparison

Which third-party payer combines HMO and PPO features and allows members to go outside the HMO for services?

POS

According to the quiz, which state lacks athletic training regulation by licensure or registration?

California

What type of insurance should athletic trainers maintain while practicing?

Professional liability

Which are components of the BOC exam, according to the quiz? (Select all that apply)

Paper and pencil; Oral practicum

What digital record contains a patient's history, medications, allergies, immunizations, lab tests, images, vital signs, demographics, and insurance/billing information?

Electronic medical record

Which type of state-level athletic training regulation is most restrictive?

Licensure

What assumes a person is reasonably and ordinarily prudent rather than exceptionally skilled or cautious?

Standard of reasonable care

An athletic trainer sutures an athlete's head wound in violation of the state practice act. What type of legal concern is this?

Act of commission

Which communication type is most effective but harder to document and potentially affected by emotions?

Face-to-face communication

What type of assessment measures change in a patient's functional status?

Outcomes assessment

What regulates how people with an athlete's health information can share it under the privacy rule?

HIPAA

According to the AAP classification in the quiz, how is soccer categorized?

Contact/collision

Sports medicine umbrella: Paramedics

Injury Care and Management

Sports medicine umbrella: Dentists

Injury Care and Management

Sports medicine umbrella: Sports nutritionist

Performance Enhancement

Sports medicine umbrella: Osteopathic medicine

Injury Care and Management

Sports medicine umbrella: Exercise physiologist

Performance Enhancement

Sports medicine umbrella: Fitness instructor

Performance Enhancement

Sports medicine umbrella: Athletic trainer

Injury Care and Management

Sports medicine umbrella: Coach

Performance Enhancement

Which conditions preclude someone from playing a full-contact/collision sport? (Select all that apply)

Enlarged spleen; Poorly controlled convulsive disorder; Absence of one kidney

Which job setting may involve workplace ergonomics, proper lifting techniques, and wellness programs for patients with high blood pressure?

Industrial/Occupational setting

How does a clearly written mission statement influence strategic planning for an athletic training healthcare system?

It focuses the direction of the healthcare program

Which injury data collection and analysis method has the greatest potential to provide useful information on sports injury incidence?

Epidemiological approach

Which third-party payer usually involves a major hospital or hospital chain and its physicians?

PHO

Which professional rehabilitates patients with disabilities affecting activities of daily living?

Occupational Therapist

Who analyzes human motion?

Biomechanist

Who can work with the athletic trainer on nutrition, wellness, and conditioning and understands cardiovascular and metabolic processes?

Exercise Physiologist

Who assists with preliminary patient evaluations and dispensing appropriate medications?

Physician Assistant

Who works under the physician's direction and liaises with the athletic trainer and school health services?

Nurse

Who helps athletes with emotional, social, intellectual, and physical aspects of their experience?

Sports Psychologist

Which medical specialist emphasizes the musculoskeletal system in health and disease using a holistic approach?

Osteopath

Who fits custom mouthguards and is available for first aid and emergency care?

Dentist

Who is trained to rehabilitate a variety of conditions in different populations?

Physical Therapist

Who is trained in foot biomechanics, surgical procedures, and orthotic devices?

Podiatrist

Which agency certifies entry-level athletic trainers?

BOC

Which law protects the privacy of student educational records?

FERPA

Define liability.

The state of being legally responsible for harm one causes another person

Define negligence.

The failure to use ordinary or reasonable care

Define torts.

Legal wrongs committed against a person

Define standard of reasonable care.

Assumes a person is reasonably and ordinarily prudent, rather than exceptionally skillful or extraordinarily cautious

Define malfeasance.

Act of commission—doing too much

Define misfeasance.

Act of omission—according to the quiz wording, when an individual improperly does something they have the legal right to do

Define assumption of risk.

Through express or implied agreement, a person assumes that some risk or danger will be involved in an undertaking

Define Good Samaritan law.

Provides limited protection to someone who voluntarily chooses to help

Third-party payer: Physician hospital organization (PHO)

A major hospital and its smaller locations are required to see a provider

Third-party payer: Point of service plan

A mixture of HMO and PPO plans where you pay for service