Medicinal Chemistry and Pharmacology of Erythropoisis-Stimulating Agents, Phosphate Binders, Vitamin D Analogs, Calcimimetics

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Last updated 8:11 AM on 10/1/26
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72 Terms

1
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What is Erythropoisis?

the production of red blood cells (RBCs)

2
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What is Hematopoiesis?

The continuous process of replacing mature blood cells.

3
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What is the ability of hematopoietic stem cells?

They can develop into many different types of blood cells

4
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Hematopoietic stem cells are located in the marrow cavities of:

Skull

Vertebral bodies

Pelvis

Proximal long bones

5
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What stimulates the stem cells?

  • SCF = stem cell factor

  • FL

  • IL-3

  • GM-CSF


6
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Growth factors that help stem cells develop work with _ to stimulate stem cells to form BFUs and CFUs

cell-cell in the bone marrow

7
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For the erythroid lineage, the important progression includes:

BFU-E → CFU-E → mature RBCs

8
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What is Erythropoietin (EPO)?

the hormone that stimulates red blood cell production

9
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What is EPO produced by?

peritubular interstitial cells of the kidney

a 193 amino acid, ~30-kDa protein

10
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What does EPO bind to?

receptors on committed progenitor cells in the bone marrow

11
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EPO secretion is a

feedback mechanism regulated by oxygen sensing

12
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What is the feedback mechanism of feedback secretion?

Low oxygen/anemia → kidney responds → EPO production → bone marrow RBC production increases

13
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Why can patients with chronic kidney failure develop anemia, and how is epoetin alfa used?

Failing kidneys produce too little endogenous EPO, so epoetin alfa replaces the inadequate EPO production

14
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What is the mechanism of action of epoetin alfa?

It replaces deficient EPO and stimulates committed RBC progenitor cells in bone marrow to increase RBC production

15
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Why must hematocrit/hemoglobin be monitored with epoetin alfa?

To prevent levels from rising too quickly or becoming too high, which increases cardiovascular/thrombotic risk

16
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What hematocrit target is recommended for CKD patients receiving epoetin?

Gradually increase to 33–36%; >36% is not recommended

17
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What is the most common adverse effect of epoetin alfa?

Hypertension

18
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What hemoglobin increase is generally considered safe with darbepoetin?

Less than 1 g/dL every 2 weeks

19
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The goal is not to normalize the hematocrit as quickly as possible, but a gradual rise and monitoring because

rapid increases can cause cardiovascular/thrombotic problems

20
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What are the major functions of calcium?

Muscle contraction, intracellular signaling, blood coagulation, and bone formation/remodeling

21
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Where is most of the body's calcium located?

About 99% is in bone and teeth

22
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What are the major roles of phosphate?

Bone, phospholipids, energy metabolism, enzyme regulation, intracellular functions, and urine buffering

23
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Where is most of the body's phosphorus located?

>80% is in bone

24
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Which hormones regulate calcium and phosphate homeostasis?

PTH, vitamin D, calcitonin, and FGF23

25
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When is PTH primarily secreted?

In response to hypocalcemia (low blood calcium)

26
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How is PTH biosynthesized?

A 115-aa pre-prohormone is processed into an 84-aa hormone and stored in secretory granules

27
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What commercial form of PTH is mentioned in the lecture?

Teriparatide (Forteo), a recombinant 34-aa form of PTH

28
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What is the first step in vitamin D biosynthesis?

UV irradiation of 7-dehydrocholesterol in skin produces cholecalciferol (D3)

29
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What is the major circulating/storage form of vitamin D?

25-hydroxyvitamin D3

[25(OH)D3]

30
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What is the active form of vitamin D?

1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3

(calcitriol)

31
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What is the mechanism of action of calcitonin?

It inhibits osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, lowering blood calcium

32
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Where is calcitonin produced?

Thyroid parafollicular C cells

33
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What is calcium gluconate used for in hypocalcemia?

IV calcium gluconate treats moderate-severe hypocalcemia and severe hypocalcemic tetany

34
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Why must IV calcium be given slowly?

To avoid cardiac arrhythmias

35
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What is the mechanism of IV bisphosphonates?

They inhibit osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, decreasing calcium release from bone

36
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What is the mechanism of nitrogen-containing bisphosphonates?

They inhibit FPPS, disrupting protein prenylation and osteoclast function

37
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What structural feature identifies a bisphosphonate?

A nonhydrolyzable P–C–P backbone instead of pyrophosphate's P–O–P

38
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What does the R1 hydroxyl group of bisphosphonates do?

Maximizes hydroxyapatite affinity and contributes to antiresorptive activity

39
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What does the R2 group of bisphosphonates affect?

Potency and interactions at the active site

40
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What are the two IV Bisphosphanates drugs?

Pamidronate

Zolexranate

41
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Pamidronate disodium

42
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Alendronate sodium

43
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Etidronate disodium

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Zoledronic acid (Zolexranate)

45
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What is the mechanism of action of phosphate binders?

They bind dietary phosphate in the GI tract, preventing its absorption and lowering serum phosphate

46
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What is Renagel?

Sevelamer HCl, a nonabsorbable polymeric phosphate binder

47
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What is the mechanism of action of sevelamer HCl?

It acts as a nonselective anion exchanger that binds intestinal phosphate and decreases absorption

48
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Why is sevelamer taken with meals?

To bind dietary phosphate in the intestine before it can be absorbed

49
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What structural feature should you recognize for sevelamer?

A nonabsorbable polymer with amine groups that acts as an anion exchanger.

50
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What are the novel iron-based phosphate binders in the lecture?

Sucroferric oxyhydroxide and ferric citrate

51
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What is the mechanism of sucroferric oxyhydroxide?

Iron(III)-oxyhydroxide binds phosphate through ligand exchange, preventing phosphate absorption

52
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What is important about sucroferric oxyhydroxide compared with sevelamer?

Similar phosphate control with a lower daily pill burden

53
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What is important about ferric citrate?

It binds phosphate and also delivers significant iron, but chronic use can cause iron overload

54
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What adverse effect is common to the iron-based phosphate binders?

Diarrhea

55
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Sucroferric oxyhydroxide

56
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Ferric citrate

57
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What are vitamin D analogs?

Modified forms of vitamin D/calcitriol that can affect calcium/phosphate balance and PTH

58
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What is an important advantage of some calcitriol analogs?

They suppress PTH with less hypercalcemic activity than calcitriol

59
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What is rickets?

A disease involving poor mineralization of developing bone

60
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What is used to treat established rickets?

Vitamin D plus oral calcium

61
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What is calcipotriene?

A synthetic calcitriol derivative with a modified side chain

62
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What is important about calcipotriene's activity in calcium metabolism?

It has less than 1% of calcitriol's activity

63
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What is calcipotriene primarily used for?

Topical treatment/study for psoriasis

64
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What structural feature should you recognize for calcipotriene?

Its cyclopropyl side chain

65
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Calcipotriene

66
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What is a calcimimetic?

A drug that mimics calcium's effect on the calcium-sensing receptor

67
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What is the mechanism of action of cinacalcet?

It increases CaSR sensitivity to extracellular Ca²⁺, decreasing PTH secretion

68
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What type of calcimimetic is cinacalcet?

Type II calcimimetic

69
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What receptor does cinacalcet act on?

The calcium-sensing receptor (CaSR)

70
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How does cinacalcet affect CaSR?

It positively allosterically modulates CaSR, increasing its sensitivity to calcium

71
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What is the ultimate effect of cinacalcet on PTH?

Decreased PTH secretion

72
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Cincalcet →

increase in CaSR sensitivity → decrease PTH