NBEO-Human Development (Non-Big 8)

By what age have infants shown to have 20/20 vision with pattern VEP testing (objective)?

A) 1 month old

B) 6 months old

C) 1 year

D) 3 years old

B) 6 months old

By what age have infants shown to have 20/20 vision with subjective testing?

A) 1 month old

B) 6 months old

C) 1 year

D) 3 years old

D) 3 years old

The most common subjective method of choice for measuring VA in infants is ________________.

A) Preferred Retinal Locust

B) Pattern VEP

C) Forced Choice Preferential Looking

D) PASS

C) Forced Choice Preferential Looking

What is the most common Forced Choice Preferential Looking method used in infants up to 12 months of age?

Teller acuity cards

What is the threshold for forced choice testing such as Teller acuity cards?

A) 0%

B) 25%

C) 50%

D) 75%

E) 100%

D) 75%

Spatial visual acuity using FPCL methods is approximately ______________ by 1 year of age.

A) 20/600

B) 20/200

C) 20/50

D) 20/20

C) 20/50

Which of the following is NOT a type of FCPL acuity?

A) Teller acuity cards

B) Broken wheel cards

C) Cardiff cards

D) ETDRS

D) ETDRS

Which OKN may be abnormal in infants due to incomplete development of the cortex?

A) Temporal to nasal

B) Nasal to temporal

C) Superior to inferior

D) Inferior to superior

B) Nasal to temporal

Vernier acuity reaches adult levels by approximately which age?

A) 6 months

B) 1 year

C) 3 years

D) 7 years

D) 7 years

_______________ acuity is the ability to detect a misalignment of two lines and is considered a hyperacuity.

Vernier acuity

Which of the following is NOT an example of a Recognition acuity chart used for toddlers?

A) Landolt C

B) HOTV

C) Lea symbols

D) Teller acuity cards

D (Resolution acuity)

Which of the following is NOT a reason why the visual acuity is poor until age 3-5?

A) Foveal cone photoreceptor length and density does not reach adulthood until about age 4

B) Myelination of the visual pathway is incomplete

C) The visual cortex is not fully developed in infants

D) An infant's cornea is often cloudy until age 5

D

The average refractive error in full term newborns is __________D

+2.00D

The average axial length for full term newborns is ___________ mm and the average axial length in adult is _____________ mm.

16mm, 24mm

Is a premature newborn more likely to have a myopic or hyperopic refractive error?

Myopic

Are newborn babies more likely to have ATR or WTR astigmatism?

ATR

Accommodation reaches adult levels by approximately ___________ months of age.

A) 1 month

B) 3 months

C) 12 months

D) 24 months

B) 3 months

Do infants have a small or large depth of focus?

Large depth of focus

Does divergence or convergence typically develop first in an infant?

Divergence (1 month) before Convergence (2 months)

Fixation, saccades, and pursuits have usually all reached adult levels by ______________ months of age.

6 months

Which of the following starts to develop the latest after birth?

A) Accommodation

B) Divergence

C) Stereopsis

D) CFF

C) Stereopsis (doesn't start until 3 months after birth)

Stereopsis typically does not appear until approximately ___________ months after birth.

3 months

Which of the following reaches adult levels the latest in life?

A) Contrast sensitivity

B) Color vision

C) Accommodation

D) CFF

A) Contrast sensitivity

Color vision is usually adult like in infants by approximately which age?

3-4 months old

Which of the following reaches adult levels the soonest after birth?

A) Contrast sensitivity

B) CFF

C) Vernier acuity

D) Stereopsis

B) CFF (~3 months)

On an ocular dominance histogram, which column has equal input from each eye?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 4

D) 7

C) 4

For a normally developed ocular dominance histogram, what does Column 1 represent?

A) Contralateral eye only

B) Ipsilateral eye only

C) Equal input from both left and right eye

A) Contralateral eye only

For a normally developed ocular dominance histogram, what does Column 7 represent?

A) Contralateral eye only

B) Ipsilateral eye only

C) Equal input from both left and right eye

B) Ipsilateral only

Which period of time is the most sensitive to visual development in humans?

A) First year only

B) Birth to 2 years old

C) 7 to 10 years old

D) 10 to 20 years old

B) Birth to 2 years old

Which two columns of an ocular dominance histogram will have the most cortical cells in a patient with an alternating strabismus? (Choose 2)

A) 1

B) 3

C) 4

D) 7

A and D

What is NOT one of the 3 major types of refractive amblyopia?

A) Anisometropic amblyopia

B) Isometropic amblyopia

C) Torsional amblyopia

D) Meridional amblyopia

C) Torsional amblyopia

Which refractive amblyopia has the greatest risk of developing amblyopia?

A) Isometropic hyperopia

B) Isometropic myopia

C) Anisometropic hyperopia

D) Anisometropic myopia

C) Anisometropic hyperopia

A strabismus must be ___________ and __________ in order for it to be considered an amblyogenic factor.

Constant and Unilateral

Which of the following are considered survival reflexes in that they ensure a newborn's survival? (Choose 2)

A) Sucking reflex

B) Rooting reflex

C) Palmar grasp

D) Babinski reflex

E) Plantar grasp

A and B

Which reflex is indicated by the fanning out of toes after an infant's foot is stroked?

A) Sucking reflex

B) Rooting reflex

C) Palmar grasp

D) Babinski reflex

E) Plantar grasp

D) Babinski reflex

For the Plantar grasp reflex, will toes curl upwards or downwards if the plantar surface of an infant is touched?

Downwards

Reflexes including the plantar grasp, palmar grasp, and rooting reflex should go away by which age?

1 year old

What can child a typically draw at age 3 years old?

A) Circle

B) Triangle

C) Square

D) Cross

A) Circle

What can child a typically draw at age 3.5 years old? (Choose 2)

A) Circle

B) Triangle

C) Square

D) Cross

A and D

What can child a typically draw at 4 years old? (Choose 3)

A) Circle

B) Triangle

C) Square

D) Cross

A, C, D

Which of the following typically takes the longest for a child to be able to draw (~ 5 years old)?

A) Circle

B) Triangle

C) Square

D) Cross

B) Triangle

Which of the following is typically able to be drawn by a child the earliest in development?

A) Circle

B) Triangle

C) Square

D) Cross

A) Circle

According to Piaget, at the end of the Sensorimotor stage, a child exhibits _____________ which means they understand a toy exists even though it is no longer in the room.

Object permanence

What is the first stage of Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development?

A) Sensorimotor stage

B) Pre-operational stage

C) Concrete Operations stage

D) Formal Operations stage

A) Sensorimotor stage

Which stage of Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development do children first display egocentrism and centration?

A) Sensorimotor stage

B) Pre-operational stage

C) Concrete Operations stage

D) Formal Operations stage

B) Pre-operational stage

Which stage of Piaget's Theory of Cognitive Development are children able to utilize abstract reasoning?

A) Sensorimotor stage

B) Pre-operational stage

C) Concrete Operations stage

D) Formal Operations stage

D) Formal Operations stage

At which age do toddlers typically begin to develop secondary emotions such as shame?

A) 3 months old

B) 5 months old

C) 2 years old

D) 12 years old

C) 2 years old

_____________________ is the ability to attend to and recognize certain sounds and is closely tied to hearing.

A) Reception

B) Expression

A) Reception

_____________________ is the ability to produce and organize sounds into meaningful sentences.

A) Reception

B) Expression

B) Expression

Which of the following is one of the most widely used developmental screening tools for children from birth to 6 years of age?

A) Denver II developmental screening test

B) MMSE

C) MOCA

D) Wernick's Developmental test

A) Denver II developmental screening test

_______________ describes the ability to discriminate, recognize, and interpret visual stimuli.

Visual information processing

Which of the following is NOT considered a visual-spatial skill?

A) Bilateral integration

B) Visual closure

C) Laterality

D) Directionality

B (visual-analysis skill)

Which of the following is NOT used to test Visual perception skills?

A) TVPS

B) MFVP

C) MMSE

D) DTVP

C) MMSE

Which of the following is NOT considered a visual motor integration test?

A) Symbol digit Modalities test

B) Developmental test of visual motor integration

C) Word sentence copy test

D) Test of visual motor skills (revised)

A (visual attention and processing skills)

Which of the following are considered visual attention and processing skills tests? (Choose 2)

A) Jordan's left-right reversal test

B) Standing test

C) Symbol digit modalities test

D) Children's color trails test

C and D

Visual-spatial skills should be mastered by approximately which age?

A) 6 years old

B) 11 years old

C) 17 years old

D) 23 years old

B) 11 years old

Approximately ___________% of patients over the age of 85 have hearing loss.

50%

Which of the following does NOT typically contribute to hearing loss in an elderly patient?

A) Deterioration of hair cells

B) Excess deposition of bone cells which results in the fusion of the oval window and stapes

C) Increase impactance of ear wax

D) Sound conduction increases due to sclerosis

D (decreases)

Which of the following decreases in elderly patients?

A) Bone mass

B) Muscle mass

C) Vertebral height

D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Which of the following is a test that is used to screen for dementia?

A) Denver II

B) MFVP

C) MMSE

D) DTVP

C) MMSE

Does refractive error shift towards ATR or WTR astigmatism in elderly patients?

ATR

Does NS cataracts in elderly patients cause a myopic or hyperopic shift?

Myopic shift

Nuclear sclerotic cataracts can lead to which type of color vision defect in elderly patients?

A) Tritan

B) Deutan

C) Protan

A) Tritan

Which of the following eye movements is usually the most difficult for elderly patients to make?

A) Upgaze

B) Downgaze

C) Right gaze

D) Left gaze

A) Upgaze

What are two main causes of decreased dark adaptation in elderly patients? (Choose 2)

A) Cataracts

B) Glaucoma

C) Decreased formation of rhodopsin

D) Decreased formation of iodopsin

A and C