2P07 Class 2

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105 Terms

1
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What is defined as reversible changes in cell size, number, phenotype, metabolic activity, and functions?

Cellular adaptation

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True or False: A cell must be injured or damaged to undergo cellular adaptation.

FALSE

3
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Term: Atrophy

Definition: The shrinkage in cellular size.

4
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Under what condition does physiological atrophy typically occur?

During early development.

5
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Which type of atrophy results from decreases in workload, pressure, or blood supply?

Pathological atrophy

6
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Term: Hypertrophy

Definition: An increase in cellular size.

7
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How does physical hypertrophy differ from pathological hypertrophy regarding structure and function?

Physical hypertrophy maintains structure and function, while pathological hypertrophy does not necessarily maintain them.

8
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What is defined as an increase in the number of cells resulting from an increased rate of cellular division?

Hyperplasia

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Which type of hyperplasia serves as an adaptive mechanism enabling certain organs to regenerate?

Compensatory hyperplasia

10
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In which organs does hormonal hyperplasia mainly occur?

Estrogen-dependent organs such as the uterus and breast.

11
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The abnormal proliferation of normal cells is known as _____ hyperplasia.

Pathological

12
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Term: Terminal Differentiation

Definition: The state where cells will never divide again once they have matured postnatally.

13
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What is the reversible replacement of one mature cell type by a different, less differentiated cell type?

Metaplasia

14
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Metaplasia in the bronchial lining replaces normal columnar ciliated epithelial cells with cells that lack _____.

Cilia (or mucus secretion)

15
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Why is bronchial metaplasia considered a loss of a vital protective mechanism?

The new cells do not have cilia and do not secrete mucus.

16
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Term: Dysplasia

Definition: Abnormal changes in the size, shape, and organization of mature cells.

17
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True or False: Dysplasia is considered a true adaptive change.

FALSE

18
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Under what condition can metaplasia and dysplasia be reversed?

If the irritating stimulus is removed.

19
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What is the biological response to cell injury caused by pathogens, irritants, or chronic conditions?

Inflammation

20
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Regarding the relationship between inflammation and infection, which one cannot be caused by the other?

An infection cannot be caused by inflammation.

21
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What are the four cardinal signs of inflammation in Latin?

Rubor, Calor, Tumor, and Dolor.

22
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In the context of inflammation, what does the term 'Rubor' signify?

Redness

23
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In the context of inflammation, what does the term 'Calor' signify?

Heat

24
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In the context of inflammation, what does the term 'Tumor' signify?

Swelling

25
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In the context of inflammation, what does the term 'Dolor' signify?

Pain

26
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What is the very first step of the vascular response in acute inflammation?

Momentary vasoconstriction

27
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Which system causes the initial vasoconstriction during the inflammatory vascular response?

The Sympathetic Nervous System

28
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During the vascular response, what mediator (chemical substance that controls how blood vessels behave during inflammation, injury etc.) release leads to vasodilation and increased vascular permeability?

Histamine

29
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What is the process of bringing white blood cells to the site of inflammation via signaling factors?

Chemotaxis

30
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The movement of cells from the capillaries to the site of injury is called _____.

Diapedesis

31
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What are the two primary causes for the slowing of blood flow during inflammation?

Increased blood viscosity and increased lumen diameter.

32
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Which white blood cells are the first to arrive at the injury site to phagocytize bacteria?

Neutrophils

33
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Which cells phagocytize inflammatory debris and can transform into multinucleated giant cells or granulomas?

Macrophages

34
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Monocytes are phagocytic cells that eventually turn into _____.

Macrophages

35
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Which specific white blood cell type shows a strong response during allergic reactions?

Eosinophils

36
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What two substances are released by basophils during the inflammatory response?

Histamine and Heparin.

37
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Where is histamine primarily stored in the body?

Granules of basophils, mast cells, and platelets.

38
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How does histamine increase vascular permeability?

By stimulating contraction of endothelial cells to create widened gaps between them.

39
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Besides platelets and mast cells, where else is serotonin stored in the body?

Enterochromaffin cells of the gastrointestinal tract.

40
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From which precursor factor (substance that comes before another and leads to its formation) are kinins (short lived biologically active peptide hormones), such as bradykinin, produced?

Kininogen

41
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Activation of which clotting factor leads to the production of kinins?

Hageman factor (XIIXII)

42
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What are the anaphylatoxic agents generated from the complement pathway?

C3aC3a, C4aC4a, and C5aC5a.

43
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Which inflammatory mediators are produced from membrane phospholipids and converted by the enzyme lipoxygenase?

Leukotrienes

44
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Which enzyme converts arachidonic acid into prostaglandins?

Cyclo-oxygenase (COX)

45
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Which form of the COX enzyme is found in most tissues and performs a general protective function?

COX-1

46
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Which form of the COX enzyme is specifically associated with the inflammatory response?

COX-2

47
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Which specific prostaglandin (lipid compounds part of inflammation) is identified as a strong pyrogen (fever causing substances)?

PGE2

48
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Term: Cytokines

Definition: Signaling molecules with specific membrane receptors that regulate innate or adaptive immune systems.

49
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What is an example of serous inflammatory exudate?

Skin blisters (or pleural effusion).

50
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A runny nose associated with an upper respiratory infection is an example of _____ exudate.

Catarrhal

51
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What type of exudate is characterized by the presence of adhesions (scar-like tissue where fibrous exudate acts as a sticky net between internal surfaces)

Fibrinous exudate

52
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Purulent exudate is more commonly known as _____.

Pus

53
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What is an example of hemorrhagic inflammatory exudate?

Hematoma (localized collection of pooled, mostly clotted blood outside of damaged blood vessels)

54
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The systemic increase in the number of circulating white blood cells is called _____.

Leukocytosis

55
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Which organ is responsible for the increased synthesis of plasma proteins during acute inflammation?

The liver

56
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On which part of the brain do pyrogens act directly to induce fever?

The hypothalamus

57
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Which three specific cytokines are released by monocytes/macrophages to trigger the febrile response (rise in body temperature due to blood product transfusion)?

IL−1IL-1, IL−6IL-6, and TNFTNF.

58
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How does the autonomic nervous system decrease heat loss during the onset of fever?

By decreasing perspiration (sweat) and blood flow to the periphery.

59
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Which hormone is released from the adrenal medulla as part of the febrile response? (rise in temperature during blood product transfusion)

Epinephrine

60
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The abnormal changes in organization of mature cells that is often a precursor to cancer is _____.

Dysplasia

61
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Which inflammatory mediator is involved in both the vascular response (vasodilation) and the pain response?

Histamine (or Kinins/Serotonin)

62
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What adaptive mechanism enables the liver to regenerate after partial resection?

Compensatory hyperplasia

63
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According to the pathophysiology map, what two types of responses follow cell injury?

Vascular response and cellular response.

64
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Which cytokine inhibits cytokine production to help limit inflammation?

IL−10IL-10

65
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Which factor is responsible for activating macrophages during the repair and healing phase?

IFN−γIFN-\gamma

66
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What type of inflammation is characterized by diffuse inflammation in connective tissue?

Cellulitis

67
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Which inflammatory mediator stimulates smooth muscle contraction and is a neurotransmitter involved in pain?

Serotonin

68
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What is the result of arachidonic acid being converted by the enzyme lipoxygenase?

Leukotrienes

69
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Which specific leukotriene is noted for stimulating chemotaxis?

Leukotriene B4B_4

70
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Inflammatory exudate is composed of fluid and _____ that move from circulation to the injury site.

Leukocytes

71
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What are the 4 particular properties of an acute inflammatory process

  1. vascularized

  2. rapid onset

  3. dependent on the activity of both cellular and chemical components

  4. nonspecific


72
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Role of histamine in acute inflammatory process (vascular response)

allows fluid (like proteins and WBC) to pass through veins

73
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which cell is related to the immune response

lymphocytes

74
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which cell is phagocytic that turn into macrophages

monocytes

75
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which cell releases histamine and heparin

basophils

76
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explain the process of causing a fever involving prostaglandins


  • arachidonic acid is converted into prostaglandins by the enzyme cyclo-oxygenase

  • this then goes to the hypothalamus to cause a fever

  • fever causes temperature to rise, so bacteria die


77
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Stages of the febrile response - Nonspecific reports such as mild headache, fatigue, general malaise, muscle aches

prodrome (an early sign, symptom, or set of symptoms that indicates the impending onset of a disease)

78
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Stages of the febrile response - Cutaneous vasoconstriction, “goose pimples,” pale skin; feeling of being cold; generalized, shaking chill; shivering that causes body to reach new temperature set by control centre in hypothalamus

chill

79
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stages of the febrile response - Sensation of warmth throughout body; cutaneous vasodilation; warming and flushing of skin

flush

80
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stages of the febrile response - Sweating (diaphoresis); decrease in body temperature

defervescence

81
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What is the skin condition (intact/non-intact) for a Deep Tissue Pressure Injury?

Skin may be intact or non-intact.

82
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What color changes indicate a Deep Tissue Pressure Injury?

Non-blanchable deep red, maroon, or purple discoloration, a dark wound bed, or a blood-filled blister.

83
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What subtle signs often occur before skin color changes in a Deep Tissue Pressure Injury?

Pain and temperature changes.

84
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What is the typical progression or outcome of a Deep Tissue Pressure Injury?

It may resolve without tissue loss or quickly deteriorate into a deeper injury.

85
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What is the skin condition for a Stage 1 pressure injury?

Intact skin with non-blanchable (does not turn white when you press it) erythema

86
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How does a Stage 1 pressure injury present on dark skin versus light skin?

  • Dark skin: Appears purple, blue, or a darker hue compared to surrounding skin.

  • Light skin: Redness that does not include purple or maroon discoloration.



87
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What early changes may precede visible skin changes in Stage 1?

Changes in sensation, temperature, or firmness.

88
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What depth of tissue loss occurs in a Stage 2 pressure injury?

Partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis.

89
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Is adipose (fat) tissue visible in Stage 2?

No. Adipose tissue and deeper structures are not exposed.

90
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Are granulation tissue, slough, or eschar present in Stage 2?

No. Granulation tissue, slough, and eschar are absent in Stage 2.

91
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What is the healing potential for Stage 2 pressure injuries?

With appropriate nursing support and pressure offloading, the wound bed can heal.

92
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What depth of tissue loss defines a Stage 3 pressure injury?

Full-thickness skin loss with exposed adipose (fat) tissue.

93
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What tissue types are often present in a Stage 3 wound bed?

Granulation tissue is often present, along with possible slough or eschar.

94
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Are fascia, muscle, tendon, ligament, cartilage, or bone exposed in Stage 3?

No. Deeper structures like fascia, muscle, tendon, ligament, cartilage, and bone are not exposed.

95
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What wound complications or extensions are common in Stage 3?

Undermining and tunneling (or a combination of both).

96
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What defines a Stage 4 pressure injury?

Full-thickness skin and tissue loss with exposed fascia, muscle, tendons, ligaments, cartilage, or bone.

97
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What tissue types or extensions are commonly seen in Stage 4?

  • Slough or eschar may be present, and undermining and/or tunneling are common.

  • Slough is a pale yellow, white, cream, or tan layer of dead tissue and protein buildup that forms in an acute or chronic wound bed

  • eschar - thick, dry, and leathery layer of dead tissue that forms over a severe wound


98
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Why is a pressure injury classified as "Unstageable"?

The full depth of tissue destruction cannot be visualized because it is covered by slough or eschar.

99
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What is slough and what does it look like?

Slough consists of dead cells and fibrin. It is typically moist and yellow or white in appearance.

100
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How does slough affect wound healing?

It impedes healing until removed.