M6 - Comprehensive Exam - (Oct 2026)

D) Directly Observed Treatment, Short-Course

The internationally recommended strategy for the control of tuberculosis is DOTS, which stands for:
A. Directly Observable Treatment, Short-Course
B. Directly Observed Therapy, Short-Course
C. Directly Observable Therapy, Short-Course
D. Directly Observed Treatment, Short-Course

A) Purple

Cells which are gram-positive appear _______ after staining.
A. Purple
B. Red
C. Pink
D. Colorless

D) Psychrophiles

Organisms responsible for low-temperature food spoilage.
A. Hyperthermophiles
B. Thermophiles
C. Mesophiles
D. Psychrophiles

D) Amphitrichous

An arrangement wherein flagella occurs at both poles of the bacterial cell.
A. Peritrichous
B. Monotrichous
C. Lophotrichous
D. Amphitrichous

A) Streak plate method

This is an isolation method commonly used to get pure cultures.
A. Streak plate method
B. Serial dilution method
C. Pour plate method
D. Spread plate method

B) Commercial sterilization

This refers to the application of sufficient heat to kill the endospores of Clostridium botulinum.
A. Sterilization
B. Commercial sterilization
C. Canning
D. Pasteurization

C) Transformation

Process wherein genes are transferred from one bacterium to another as “naked” DNA in solution
A. Transduction
B. Conjugation
C. Transformation
D. Transposition

B) Virion

A complete, infectious viral particle
A. Virus
B. Virion
C. Viroid
D. Vibrio

C) Filtration

Which of the following is the preferred method of sterilizing liquids containing toxins, vaccines, and enzymes?
A. Autoclaving
B. Radiation
C. Filtration
D. Hot-air sterilization

B) Anopheles

The definitive host for Plasmodium vivax is
A. Human
B. Anopheles
C. A sporocyte
D. A gametocyte

C) I and III

The following statements are correct:
I. All antigens are immunogens
II. A hapten is antigenic on its own
III. An epitope is an antigenic determinant
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. I, II, III

A) The pathogen must be present in several disease conditions

Koch’s postulates, except:
A. The pathogen must be present in several disease conditions
B. The pathogen must be isolated from diseased hosts and grown in pure culture
C. The pathogen from the pure culture must cause the disease when inoculated into a healthy, susceptible, laboratory animal
D. The pathogen must be isolated from the inoculated animal and must be shown to be the original organism

D) Ignaz Semmelweis

Which scientist first hypothesized that medical personnel can infect patients with pathogens?
A. Edward Jenner
B. Joseph Lister
C. Louis Pasteur
D. Ignaz Semmelweis

B) Attachment-Penetration-Uncoating-Biosynthesis-Assembly-Release

Which is the correct order of events in the multiplication of animal viruses?
A. Penetration-Attachment-Uncoating-Assembly-Biosynthesis-Release
B. Attachment-Penetration-Uncoating-Biosynthesis-Assembly-Release
C. Penetration-Attachment-Biosynthesis-Assembly-Uncoating-Release
D. Attachment-Penetration-Biosynthesis-Assembly-Uncoating-Release

B) Mumps

An acute generalized viral infection occurring in school-age children manifested by swelling of the parotid salivary glands
A. Chicken pox
B. Mumps
C. Tonsilitis
D. Typhoid fever

B) Pox

Odd man out:
A. Parvo
B. Pox
C. Adeno
D. Papova

C) Kanamycin

Which of the following drugs are bactericidal?
A. Doxycycline
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Kanamycin
D. Sulfanilamide

A) I only

True about hemolysins:
I. α-hemolysin produces a greenish area around bacterial colonies in blood
II. Staphylococcus aureus produces γ-hemolysin
III. No visible change occurs when Streptococcus pyogenes is cultured in a blood agar plate
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. II only

C) Both statements are true.

Acyclovir is the drug of choice for herpes simplex infections. Tenofovir is a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
A. The first statement is true but the second statement is false.
B. The first statement is false but the second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.

D) Sporozoite

In malaria, the form of plasmodia that is transmitted from mosquito to human is the:
A. Gametocyte
B. Merozoite
C. Oocyst
D. Sporozoite

B) Rifampicin – Streptomyces mediterranei

Which of the following pairs is not matched?
A. Chloramphenicol – Streptomyces venezuelae
B. Rifampicin – Streptomyces mediterranei
C. Amphotericin B – Streptomyces nodosus
D. Kanamycin – Micromonospora purpurea

A) Definitive host

Type of host wherein the parasite reproduces sexually
A. Definitive host
B. Intermediate host
C. Reservoir host
D. Paratenic host

B) Hymenolepsis nana

Which of the following is not a nematode?
A. Strongyloides stercoralis
B. Hymenolepsis nana
C. Brugia malayi
D. Enterobius vermicularis

C) Perianal swab

Diagnostic test for the presence of Enterobius vermicularis:
A. Kato thick method
B. Kato-katz method
C. Perianal swab
D. Enterotest

D) I, II, III, IV

True about cestodes:
I. Tapeworms
II. Taenia saginata is an example
III. Are platyhelminths
IV. Intestinal parasites
A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II, III, IV

A) Ancylostoma duodenale

Also known as “Old world hookworm”
A. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Necator americanus
C. Paragonimus westermani
D. Fasciola hepatica

D) Trophozoite

Active, vegetative stage of a protozoan
A. Larva
B. Cyst
C. Sporozoite
D. Trophozoite

B) Diethylcarbamazine citrate

Drug of choice for Bancroftian filariasis
A. Albendazole
B. Diethylcarbamazine citrate
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel

B) Giardia lamblia

Causative agent of the “Leningrad’s curse”
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Balantidium coli

C) Public health

Defined as “what we as a society do to assure the conditions in which people can be healthy”
A. Community involvement
B. Community health project
C. Public health
D. Intersectoral participation

B) Marasmus

This stems from an inadequate calorie intake due to insufficient diet, improper feeding habits, metabolic abnormalities or congenital malformations that result to a gain in weight, followed by loss of weight until emaciation occurs.
A. Protein energy malnutrition
B. Marasmus
C. Kwashiorkor
D. Anorexia

D) A and B

Drug(s) of choice for Trypanosoma cruzi:
A. Nifurtimox
B. Benznidazole
C. Suramin
D. A and B

D) Whipworm – cockroach

Which of the following pairs are not matched?
A. Filariasis – mosquito
B. Schistosomiasis – snail
C. River blindness – fly
D. Whipworm – cockroach

D) Artificially acquired passive immunity

Type of adaptive immunity achieved by the injection of antisera.
A. Naturally acquired active immunity
B. Naturally acquired passive immunity
C. Artificially acquired active immunity
D. Artificially acquired passive immunity

C) Fomite

General term for nonliving objects involved in the spread of an infection (tissues, eating utensils)
A. Reservoir
B. Carrier
C. Fomite
D. Vector

A) IL-1

Of the important cytokines in the body, which is an endogenous pyrogen?
A. IL-1
B. IL-2
C. IL-3
D. IL-4

D) Diphyllobothrium latum

A cestode that competes with its host for vitamin B12:
A. Hymenolepsis nana
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Diphyllobothrium latum

A) Primaquine

Which of the following is the drug of choice for the exo-erythrocytic form of malaria?
A. Primaquine
B. Chloroquine
C. Mefloquine
D. Doxycycline

C) I and III

Nematodes which cause infection by penetrating intact skin:
I. Necator americanus
II. Trichuris trichiura
III. Strongyloides stercoralis
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. I, II, III

A) Xerophtalmia

Severe vitamin A deficiency
A. Xerophtalmia
B. Keratoconjunctivitis
C. Blindness
D. Goiter

A) Wasting

Inappropriate weight-for-height:
A. Wasting
B. Stunting
C. Emaciation
D. Growth gap

A) P. falciparum

This species of Plasmodium causes malignant tertian malaria
A. P. falciparum
B. P. vivax
C. P. ovale
D. P. malariae

C) Moxifloxacin

This antibiotic inhibits topoisomerase II
A. Gentamicin
B. Clindamycin
C. Moxifloxacin
D. Cotrimoxazole

A) Hepatitis E is a chronic type of hepatitis

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Hepatitis E is a chronic type of hepatitis
B. Hepatitis B can be spread by sharing of needles
C. Hepatitis C can lead to cirrhosis
D. Hepatitis D requires co-infection with hepatitis B

C) AH5N1 influenza virus

Avian flu is caused by the
A. AH1N1 influenza virus
B. AH7N7 influenza virus
C. AH5N1 influenza virus
D. None of the above

A) Negative stain

Nigrosin is used in this stain
A. Negative stain
B. Ziehl Neelsen Stain
C. Schaeffer-Fulton Stain
D. Gram Stain

D) Escherichia coli

This is also known as Doderlein’s bacillus
A. Lactobacillus sp.
B. Fusobacterium sp.
C. Bacteroides fragilis
D. Escherichia coli

B) Morbidity rate

The number of people affected by a disease in a given period of time in relation to the total population
A. Incidence rate
B. Morbidity rate
C. Incidence ratio
D. Morbidity ratio

C) Mycobacterium leprae

Probably the only bacterium that grows in the peripheral nervous system:
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

D) Echinococcus granulosus

Intermediate host: humans
Definitive host: dogs
A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Diphyllobothrium latum
D. Echinococcus granulosus

A) Reproducibility

The precision measured when an assay is performed between two different laboratories
A. Reproducibility
B. Repeatability
C. Intermediate Precision
D. System Precision

B) Non-aqueous acidimetry

The type of assay for diazepam
A. Aqueous acidimetry
B. Non-aqueous acidimetry
C. Aqueous alkalimetry
D. Non-aqueous alkalimetry

C) Both statements are true.

All iodometric assays use potassium iodide. Iodometry is an indirect titrimetry.
A. The first statement is true but the second statement is false.
B. The first statement is false but the second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.

B) The first statement is false but the second statement is true.

The indicator for aluminum ion in complexometry is Eriochrome Black. The type of titration is residual.
A. The first statement is true but the second statement is false.
B. The first statement is false but the second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.

D) 380nm-780nm

The wavelength of visible light is
A. 15(m-300(m
B. 3(m-15(m
C. 780nm-3000nm
D. 380nm-780nm

D) Temperature

Which is not a mechanism of separation involved in chromatography?
A. Adsorption
B. Molecular size
C. Ionic charge
D. Temperature

B) The first statement is false but the second statement is true.

IR spectroscopy causes excitation to determine functional group. Stretching and bending is involved in IR.
A. The first statement is true but the second statement is false.
B. The first statement is false but the second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.

C) Wij’s Method

Iodine value method determination that uses Iodine Monochloride is
A. Hanus Method
B. Hub’s Method
C. Wij’s Method
D. Kjehdahl Method

C) 12.46

Sample: Lagundi leaves
Wt of empty crucible = 52.452 g
Wt of crucible + Sx = 61.648 g
Wt of crucible + Sx dried to constant wt = 60.502 g
Wt of crucible + Sx after incineration = 53.006 g
Wt of crucible + acid insoluble residue = 53.48 g
Official requirement:
% total ash = NMT 6 %
% acid insoluble ash = NMT 0.5 %
% moisture = NMT 15 %
The percent moisture content of the sample was
A. 6.02
B. 11.46
C. 12.46
D. 14.24

A) 6.02

The percent total ash content of the sample was
A. 6.02
B. 6.88
C. 12.46
D. 14.24

B) White mice

Safety or toxicity for infusion plastic sets is tested using
A. Guinea pigs
B. White mice
C. Albino Rats
D. Rabbits

B) I and II

Most commonly used adsorbents in TLC
I. Silica gel
II. Alumina
III. Keiselguhr
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. I, II, III

A) Rabbit

What animal is used for tubocurarine injection?
A. Rabbit
B. Pigeon
C. Chicken
D. Rat

C) Green stickers should be pasted above the red sticker

Which of the following statements is not true about the use of quality control stickers?
A. Decision stickers are pasted over quarantine stickers
B. Green stickers means approved for use
C. Green stickers should be pasted above the red sticker
D. Red sticker can be pasted even without removing yellow sticker

C) Detergent Solution

Which of the following is recommended for cleaning glasswares?
A. Chromic acid-sulfuric acid mixture
B. Hot sulfuric acid
C. Detergent Solution
D. 70% Ethanol

C) Direct Complexometry

Milk of Magnesia is assayed by
A. Direct acidimetry
B. Residual Acidimetry
C. Direct Complexometry
D. Residual Complexometry

A) Number of electrons lost

To find the mEq of a reducing agents is to divide the molecular weight by
A. Number of electrons lost
B. Number of electrons gained
C. Number of ionic change
D. Number of replaceable H ions

A) Form weak 1:1 complex with metal ions

True about EDTA, except
A. Form weak 1:1 complex with metal ions
B. Prevents metal catalyzed oxidation of foods
C. It is hexadentate
D. It contains 4 oxygen and 2 nitrogen atoms that complexes with metal ion

C) Basic

A buret with a glass stopcock is used for titration of_____ analytes
A. Alcohol containing
B. Acidic
C. Basic
D. neutral

B) Hot Extraction

Method I for determining alcohol-soluble extractives for articles of biological origin is also known as
A. Cold Extraction
B. Hot Extraction
C. Azeotropic-Toluene Distillation
D. Acetylization Method

B) Oil in water emulsion

Given the following data:
The sample is aNo:
A. Suspension
B. Oil in water emulsion
C. Water in oil Emulsion
D. None of these

A) Plate Method

Antibiotic microbial assay/s recognized by the USP
A. Plate Method
B. Microbial Filter Method
C. Both A and B
D. None of these

A) Salmonella spp

According to the USP, a batch of Sambong capsules should be free from what organism?
A. Salmonella spp
B. E. coli
C. P. aeruginosa
D. S. aureus

B) E. coli

According to the USP, a bottle of United American Tiki-tiki Star® syrup should be free from what organism?
A. Salmonella spp
B. E. coli
C. P. aeruginosa
D. S. aureus

A) Weight Variation

What test for uniformity of dosage units should be employed for a tablet with 75mg active ingredient?
A. Weight Variation
B. Content Uniformity
C. Constant Weight
D. Both A and B

D) 20

How many samples should be taken for #75?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 30
D. 20

C) I and II

When Starch TS is used as an indicator, the endpoint is/are
I. Appearance of intense blue color
II. Disappearance of intense blue color
III. Straw colored solution
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. I, II, III

D) Sulfated-ash

Residue on ignition is also called as
A. Loss on ignition
B. Water-soluble ash
C. Acid-insoluble ash
D. Sulfated-ash

B) Quality Assurance

The sum total of the organized arrangements made with the object of ensuring that products will be consistently produced of the quality required by their intended use is
A. Quality
B. Quality Assurance
C. Quality Control
D. Good Manufacturing Practices

A) Concentration determination of compounds

The UV-Visible spectrometry is usually used for
A. Concentration determination of compounds
B. Functional group determination
C. RF values
D. Structure elucidation

B) Inorganic Matter

The ash content of an organic compound is an impurity of
A. Carbon
B. Inorganic Matter
C. Volatile content
D. Oil

B) 0.60

The Rf value of a substance which shows the distance travelled by the solvent is 12.5cm while the distance travelled by the sample is 7.5cm is:
A. 60.0
B. 0.60
C. 1.67
D. 1.66

A) Determinate error

Systematic or constant error
A. Determinate error
B. Indeterminate error
C. Standard deviation
D. Variation

C) Angle of Repose

The constant, three-dimensional angle relative to the horizontal base, assumed by a cone-like pile of material formed by any of several different methods
A. Hausner Ratio
B. Flow Rate
C. Angle of Repose
D. Compressibility Index

B) 0.1N Bromine Solution

Koppeschaar’s solution is also known as
A. 0.1N Iodine Solution
B. 0.1N Bromine Solution
C. 0.1N Sodium Nitrite Solution
D. 0.1N Sodium Thiosulfate solution

C) Water

The standard used in calibrating Abbe Refractometer is
A. Rose Oil
B. Methanol
C. Water
D. Ethanol

A) Contents are protected from extraneous solids

A drug substance has been specified to be stored in a well closed container. This means that the
A. Contents are protected from extraneous solids
B. Contents are protected from extraneous solids and liquids
C. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids and gases
D. Contents are protected from extraneous solids, liquids, gases and vapors

B) 32.01o

The angle of repose of a batch of granules was determined. The height of the cone formed was 2.5 cm, the diameter was 8 cm, and the circumference was 29.8 cm.
What is the angle of repose of the substance?
A. 17.35o
B. 32.01o
C. 88.17o
D. 89.08o

A) Excellent

What is the flow property of the substance?
A. Excellent
B. Good
C. Very poor
D. Very, very poor

B) g or mg of solute per m

Titer is an expression of concentration in terms of
A. g of solute per 100mL
B. g or mg of solute per m
C. g per liter
D. mg per liter

B) 225mg

Potency of a 250mg tablet at expiry date
A. 237.5mg
B. 225mg
C. 200mg
D. 125mg

B) Polarimeter

Instrument used to measure optical activity
A. Abbe
B. Polarimeter
C. Spectrophotometer
D. Optical meter

D) 113.7

If a 0.47g sample of KI yielded 0.7564g of AgI precipitate by gravimetric assay, the % purity of KI is (mw of KI=165.90; mw of AgI =234.76)
A. 83.7
B. 93.7
C. 103.7
D. 113.7

A) 0.81

After settling, the sediment volume of a 120-mL sample of cloxacillin suspension was found to be 97 mL. What is its sedimentation volume?
A. 0.81
B. 97 mL
C. 0.19
D. 19 %

B) 181.0

What is the acid value of a sample of castor oil if it took 33.70 mL of 0.1034 N KOH to neutralize 1.08 g?
A. 210.1
B. 181.0
C. 409.4
D. 322.6

B) Type II

Water attack test for glass is performed on
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

A) Type I

Highly resistant borosilicate glass is USP glass type
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

A) 4.8 %

Friability test:
Cefuroxime tablet 500 mg/tab
Initial weight: 5 grams
Final weight: 4.76 grams
What is the % friable?
A. 4.8 %
B. 5.04 %
C. 24.0 %
D. 95.2 %

B) Failed

What is the disposition of the batch?
A. Passed
B. Failed
C. It depends on the votes of the workers
D. It depends on the decision of the manager.

D) 73 %

In phenol content determination of a volatile oil, the layer in the graduated neck of the Cassia flask reached 2.7 mL obtained from a sample of 10 mL oil after treatment with KOH solution. The % oil is
A. 7.3 %
B. 27 %
C. 69 %
D. 73 %