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Description and Tags

G5, G6, G7

210 Terms

1
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<p>what kind of plate is it?</p>

what kind of plate is it?

Blood Agar Plates

2
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what does BAP stand for

blood agar plates

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blood plates are made with 5% — —

sheep blood

4
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what is the use of BAP’s

Can help to differentiate different organisms based on the organism's ability to create hemolysis (clearness) around the colony.

5
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BAP aka

a differential medium.

6
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<p>what kind if plate is it</p>

what kind if plate is it

Tryptic Soy Agar

7
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define Tryptic Soy Agar

A non-selective, nutritional medium that has the required nutrients to grow a variety of organisms.

8
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Selective mediums

plates that contain specific materials and/or antibiotics to encourage or discourage certain colony growth

9
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how to collect a liquid/broth sample (4)

  1. Remove the lid of the container without putting the lid down, keep it held in your dominant hand and the container in your non-dominant hand

  2. Flame the rim of the container for 1-2 seconds

  3. Submerge your loop tip into the sample without touching the lid of the container

  4. Loop should have a bubble in it (think bubbles you buy in the store with the wand), be careful not to break the bubble


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how to collect a solid/plated sample (3)

  1. Remove the lid of the container without putting the lid down

  2. keep the lid held in your dominant hand and the container in your non-dominant hand

  3. Gently touch the loop to the colony of bacteria or object to obtain a small amount of sample, careful not to disrupt the plating contents


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how to streak a plate (6)

  1. Using inoculating loop, transfer culture or specimen.

  2. Sterilize loop in between inoculations by holding it in a Bunsen burner flame until hot.

  3. Sample should be spread in a back and forth pattern that is separated into 4 different quadrants

  4. Once you are finished with one quadrant, you will reflame your loop to sterilize it and then starting from where you left off with your previous quadrant you will start the same back and forth pattern with the next quadrant. This ensures you are diluting the sample as you move throughout your 4 quadrants and are also creating 4 separate quadrants

  5. You will then place your plate back onto the lid inverted (upside down) and place in the incubator. This is to prevent condensation from affecting the colonies

  6. Check growth every 24-48 hours and once growth is observed a macromorphology of the colonies can be done


12
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<p>what bacterial form</p>

what bacterial form

punctiform

13
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<p>what bacterial form</p>

what bacterial form

circular

14
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<p>what bacterial form</p>

what bacterial form

filamentous

15
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<p>what bacterial form</p>

what bacterial form

irregular

16
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<p>what bacterial form</p>

what bacterial form

rhizoid

17
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<p>what bacterial form (2)</p>

what bacterial form (2)

spindle (lens)

18
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<p>what bacterial elevation</p>

what bacterial elevation

flat

19
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<p>what bacterial elevation</p>

what bacterial elevation

raised

20
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<p>what bacterial elevation</p>

what bacterial elevation

convex

21
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<p>what bacterial elevation</p>

what bacterial elevation

pulvinate

22
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<p>what bacterial elevation</p>

what bacterial elevation

umbonate

23
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<p>what bacterial margin (2)</p>

what bacterial margin (2)

entire (even)

24
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<p>what bacterial margin</p>

what bacterial margin

undulate (wavy)

25
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<p>what bacterial margin</p>

what bacterial margin

filamentous

26
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<p>what bacterial margin (2)</p>

what bacterial margin (2)

lobate (lobes)

27
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<p>what bacterial margin (2)</p>

what bacterial margin (2)

Erose (serrated)

28
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<p>what bacterial margin</p>

what bacterial margin

curled

29
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gram positive = — (color)

purple

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gram negative = — (color)

pink

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<p>this is gram —</p>

this is gram —

positive

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<p>this is gram —</p>

this is gram —

negative

33
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<p>what bacterial arrangements</p>

what bacterial arrangements

coccus

34
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<p>what bacterial arrangements</p>

what bacterial arrangements

diplococcus

35
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<p>what bacterial arrangements</p>

what bacterial arrangements

steptococcus

36
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<p>what bacterial arrangements</p>

what bacterial arrangements

tetrad

37
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<p>what bacterial arrangements</p>

what bacterial arrangements

staphylococcus

38
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<p>what bacterial arrangements</p>

what bacterial arrangements

sarcina

39
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<p>what bacterial shape (2)</p>

what bacterial shape (2)

rods/bacilli

40
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<p>what bacterial shape</p>

what bacterial shape

cocci

41
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<p>what bacterial shape</p>

what bacterial shape

vibrio

42
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<p>what bacterial shape</p>

what bacterial shape

Spirillum / Spirochete

43
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<p>what bacterial shape</p>

what bacterial shape

flagella

44
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<p>what bacterial shape</p>

what bacterial shape

flagella

45
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<p>what bacterial shape</p>

what bacterial shape

flagella

46
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<p>what bacterial shape</p>

what bacterial shape

pili

47
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how to Prepare slide with bacteria (8)

  1. On the slide, with a grease pencil draw a circle the size of a dime on the bottom side.

  2. Then turn it over and place a drop of saline in the center of the slide, the size of a dime

  3. Touch a colony from the agar plate with an inoculating loop. Place the bacteria at the edge of the saline drop and gently mix.

  4. Do not mix too hard.

  5. Mixture should look creamy and not too thick or it will take too long to dry

  6. Label slide with your initials and date (use a pencil)

  7. Allow slide to air dry till smear looks somewhat dry

  8. Pass slide through flame two to three times specimen side up. Do not overheat the slide.


48
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what is the gram stain, stains and order (4)

  1. crystal violet

  2. iodine

  3. decolorization

  4. safranin


49
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How to perform the catalase test

  1. Using a sterile inoculating loop, touch an isolated colony of the bacteria and smear it onto the glass slide in an even layer.

  2. Add two to three drops of 3% hydrogen peroxide onto each bacterial smear. Do not mix the sample

  3. Watch for a bubbling effect. Bubbles indicate a catalase-positive result (such as Staphylococcus), while no bubbles indicate a catalase-negative result (such as Streptococcus)


50
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bubbles in a catalase test indicates

catalase positive

51
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no bubbles in a catalase test indicates

catalase-negative

52
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culture answers the question : …

what kind of bacteria are we dealing with?

53
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sensitivity answers the question : …

what antimicrobial will best get rid of this infection?

54
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— of amino acids produces ammonia

Deamination

55
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Ammonia is toxic and needs to be converted to — to to be excreted as waste

urea

56
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Urea filtered by the —

kidneys

57
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— - —% of urea reabsorbed to help create renal medullary concentration gradient

40 - 60 %

58
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define Azotemia

Increased levels of nitrogenous waste products in the blood

59
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define Uremia

Greatly increased BUN/Creatinine

60
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clinical signs of uremia (5)

  1. anorexia

  2. nausea

  3. vomiting

  4. depression

  5. ulceration of GIT mucosa


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— — is the Most common reason for azotemia

pre renal

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Pre-renal Azotemia Causes (6)

  1. Decreased GFR

  2. Increased protein catabolism

  3. High protein diets

  4. Electrolyte disturbance

  5. acid-base disturbance

  6. High USG


63
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decreased GFR causes (4)

  1. Decreased perfusion of the kidney

  2. Shock

  3. dehydration

  4. CV disease


64
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Increased protein catabolism causes (7)

  1. Necrosis

  2. starvation

  3. infection

  4. fever

  5. corticosteroid admin

  6. BUN increases

  7. CREA normal


65
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post renal causes (4)

  1. Increased BUN

  2. increased Creatinine

  3. Animal unable to void normal amounts of urine

  4. Urine SG – isosthenuric

  5. Electrolyte abnormalities!


66
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define isosthenuric

USG is the same as protein free plasma, indicates damage to the kidneys

67
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protein malnutrition is caused by

low BUN

68
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define protein malnutrition (2)

  1. Severely restricted diet in protein

  2. Disease preventing amino acid absorption


69
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— is not affected by protein intake

Creatinine

70
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what organ produces urea

liver

71
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what are some abnormalities caused from increased levels (3)

  1. Protein Malnutrition

  2. Hepatic Disease

  3. Decreased Muscle Mass


72
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Ammonia also formed in GIT by bacteria …

acting on dietary proteins

73
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creatine is produced in and released from — —

muscle cells

74
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creatine is not reabsorbed in the —

kidneys

75
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what does SDMA stand for

Symmetric dimethylarginine

76
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what are the normal levels of SDMA

<15 ug/dL

77
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what does BUN stand for

Blood Urea Nitrogen

78
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what are the units of measurement for BUN (2) (SI unit and conventional unit)

  1. SI Units (mmol/L)

  2. Conventional units (mg/dL)


79
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Carnivores tend to have — BUN normal ranges than herbivores

higher

80
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why do carnivores tend to have higher normal ranges than herbivores

Because of their diets being higher in protein

81
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CREA stands for

creatine

82
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what are the normal creatine values (2) (range mg/dL and mmol/L)

  1. 1-2 mg/dL

  2. 90-180 mmol/L


83
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true or false : creatine levels don’t vary in different species

true

84
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what are the 3 sources of water

  1. Water as fluid consumed

  2. Water in food

  3. Metabolic water


85
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how is water lost (5)

  1. Urine

  2. Feces

  3. Sweat

  4. Exhaled air

  5. Body secretions


86
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what are the 2 types of fluid for the body

  1. Intracellular fluid

  2. Extracellular fluid


87
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what does ICF stand for

Intracellular fluid

88
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define Intracellular fluid

fluid within the cells

89
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intracellular fluid is — - —% of body weight

35 - 45%

90
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what does ECF stand for

Extracellular fluid

91
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define Extracellular fluid

fluid outside of the cells

92
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intracellular fluid is —% of body weight

15%

93
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where is ECF divided to in the body (3)

  1. Intravascular (plasma)

  2. Interstitial fluid

  3. Lymphatic


94
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where is Intravascular (plasma)

within blood/circulatory system

95
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where is Interstitial fluid

in the tissue, between cells

96
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where is lymphatic

within the lymphatic system

97
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what contributes to Osmotic Pressure in Plasma (6)

  1. albumin

  2. Plasma proteins

  3. glucose

  4. urea

  5. Na

  6. Cl


98
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what does Osmotic Pressure in Plasma manage (4)

  1. water balance regulation

  2. Movement of water across the semipermeable cell membrane

  3. Equalize concentrations between ICF and ECF

  4. Pressure due to solutes dissolved


99
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balance of water is regulated by (2)

  1. thirst

  2. kidney


100
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what does the Hypothalamus do

monitors plasma osmotic pressure