MODULE 6 - MB2

A

Father of chemotherapy

A. Paul Ehrlich

B. Anton van Leeuwenhoek

C. Ignaz Semmelweis

D.Edward Jenner

B

This type of water has had all contaminants

and minerals removed by means of

vaporization of water followed by

condensation in a purer state. It may be

used as a solvent for reagent preparation.

A. Purified water

B. Distilled water

C. Potable water

D. Deionized water

B

What are the conditions for moist heat

sterilization using an autoclave?

A. 121oC, 15 atm, 15-20 minutes

B. 121oC, 15 psi, 15-20 minutes

C. 121oF, 15 atm, 15-20 minutes

D. 121oF, 15 psi, 15-20 minutes

B

This component of a mother's breast

milk contains a high concentration of

antibodies that protect newborns from

certain diseases.

A. Probiotics

B. Colostrum

C. Colostreum

D. Immunoglobulin G

C

After receiving flu vaccine, a person may

develop ______ immunity.

A. Naturally acquired active

B. Naturally acquired passive

C. Artificially acquired active

D. Artificially acquired passive

A

Which of the following should not be

administered to a two-month-old baby?

I. MMR

II. Polio

III. Diphtheria

IV. Pertussis

A. I

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. III, IV

B

A hapten is a substance that:

A. Induces cellular immune response but

not antibody production

B. Does not induce any immune response

when given alone but does elicit an

immune response when coupled to a

larger molecule

C. Induces tolerance when given alone

D.When coupled to a larger molecule can

be recognized by B lymphocytes but not

T lymphocytes

B

A presumptive diagnosis of syphilis requires

the use of 2 types of laboratory serologic

tests - nontreponemal and treponemal.

Which of the following may be considered

as (a) nontreponemal test/s?

I. VDRL III. TPHA

II. RPR IV. FTA-Abs

A. I

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. III, IV

A

In favorable conditions, a bacterial

endospore will return to its vegetative

state. This process is referred to as:

A. Germination

B. Vegetation

C. Sporulation

D. Saponification

D

The causative agent of pneumonia typically

associated with inhalation of air from air-

conditioners:

A. Chlamydia psittaci

B. Salmonella typhi

C. Pneumocystis carinii

D. Legionella pneumophila

C

Characteristics of Staphylococcus

epidermidis except:

A. Catalase-positive

B. Coagulase-negative

C. Coagulase-positive

D. Both a and b

A

Which microorganisms from the list below

are resistant to the damaging effects of

heat?

I. Bacillus subtilis

II. Clostridium botulinum

III. Staphylococcus aureus

IV. Escherichia coli

A. I, II

B. III, IV

C. I, II, III

D. I, II, III, IV

C

The advantageous effect (to bacteria)

attributable to the bacterial capsule.

A. Protection from harsh environment

B. Exchange of DNA between bacteria

C. Prevention of phagocytosis

D. Drug resistance

A

This group B streptococcus is the most

common causative agent of meningitis

and sepsis in neonates.

A. Streptococcus agalactiae

B. Streptococcus pyogenes

C. Staphylococcus aureus

D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

C

True statements regarding the various

pathotypes of E. coli:

I. The most virulent form is

enterohemorrhagic E. coli or EHEC,

which causes bloody diarrhea.

II. The most common EHEC strain is

E. coli O157:H7, wherein O157 is a

lipopolysaccharide antigen and H7 is a

flagellar antigen.

III.Enteroinvasive E. coli or EIEC is

characterized by shigella-like dysentery.

IV.Enteroinvasive E. coli causes infantile

diarrhea, while enterotoxigenic E. coli

causes traveler's diarrhea.

A. I

B. II, III

C. I, II, III

D. I, II, III, IV

B

Neisseria meningitidis can be

differentiated from Neisseria gonorrhoeae

by its ability to ferment a particular

carbohydrate, which is:

A. Glucose

B. Maltose

C. Lactose

D. Sucrose

B

Bacteriostatic, except:

I. Chloramphenicol

II. Metronidazole

III. Vancomycin

IV. Erythromycin

A. I, II

B. II, III

C. III, IV

D. I, IV

A

Source of Vancomycin

A. S. orientalis

B. S. roseosporus

C. S. nodosus

D. S. erythreus

A

Mycoplasmas are susceptible to penicillins.

A. Not True

B. Not False

C. True

D. Not enough data

D

An outbreak of sepsis caused by

Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the

newborn nursery. What body part would

most likely be swabbed to confirm the

presence of this microorganism?

A. Genital organ

B. Anus

C. Ear canal

D. Nostrils

A

A patient presents to the clinic complaining

of 2 weeks experiencing fever and diarrhea,

as well as rose spots on abdomen. What

drug should be prescribed for the patient's

condition?

A. Ceftriaxone

B. Chloramphenicol

C. Penicillin

D. Hydration and rest

B

Dermatophyte affecting the scalp.

A. Tinea nigra

B. Tinea capitis

C. Tinea pedis

D. Tinea versicolor

B

Virions are mature infectious viral

particles composed of nucleic acid (RNA/

DNA) without a protein coat. Prions are

infectious particles composed solely of

protein with no detectable nucleic acid.

A. First statement is correct.

B. Second statement is correct.

C. Both statements are correct.

D. Both statements are incorrect.

B

The following statements about influenza

virus and rabies virus are correct, except:

I. They are enveloped, negative-stranded

RNA viruses.

II. Vaccines containing killed organisms are

available for both viruses.

III.They each have a single antigenic type.

A. I only

B. II, III

C. I, II, III

D. I, II

C

Naked DNA viruses, except:

I. Poxvirus

II. Retrovirus

III. Paramyxovirus

IV. Parvovirus

A. I only

B. II, III

C. I, II, III

D. I, II, III, IV

A

Which of the following viruses is incorrectly

described?

I. HSV: enveloped RNA virus

II. HPV: naked DNA virus

III. Influenza: enveloped RNA virus

IV. Poliovirus: naked RNA virus

A. I only

B. I, II

C. I, II, III

D. I, II, III, IV

C

Correctly paired virus and viral family

classification:

I. Varicella zoster: Herpesviridae

II. Marburg virus: Filoviridae

III. Rubeola virus: Paramyxoviridae

IV. Rubella virus: Coronaviridae

A. I only

B. I, II

C. I, II, III

D. I, II, III, IV

A

The following viruses gain entry via the

intestinal tract, except:

I. Mumps virus

II. Poliovirus

III. Rotavirus

IV. Hepatitis A virus

A. I only

B. I, II

C. I, II, III

D. I, II, III, IV

B

In 1970s, DOH declared the eradication of

smallpox. Reasons why we were able to

eradicate smallpox include all those listed

below, except:

A. There is only one serotype.

B. There is a subclinical stage.

C. Humans are the only reservoir.

D. All of the above.

B

The following are advantages of oral

poliovirus vaccine over the injected version,

except

A. Cheaper & easier to manufacture

B. Will not revert to virulence

C. Ease of administration

D.May confer herd immunity

C

Drug approved for and typically

administered to CoVID patients on

ventilators or supplemental oxygen to

reduce the risk of death.

A. Ivermectin

B. Chloroquine

C. Dexamethasone

D. Remdesivir

A

The most common helminth to infect

humans worldwide.

A. Ascaris lumbricoides

B. Ancylostoma duodenale

C. Ancylostoma caninum

D. Schistosoma japonicum

C

DOC for toxoplasmosis

A. Diethylcarbamazine

B. Pyrantel pamoate

C. Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

D. Sulfamethoxazole + trimethoprim

C

Old McDonald had a farm, and on his farm,

he had some pigs, The pigsty was near the

water well where he would fetch water

to drink & wash. One day, he experienced

abdominal pains & diarrhea. When the

physician checks his stools, what protozoan

will he most likely detect to be the cause of

McDonald's symptoms?

A. Giardia lamblia

B. Cyclospora cayetanensis

C. Balantidium coli

D. Toxoplasma gondii

A

_____ is used for the "radical cure" of

malaria.

A. Primaquine

B. Mefloquine

C. Doxycycline

D. Atovaquone

D

Metazoan found in bagsit fish in the Ilocos

region.

A. Hymenolepsis nana

B. Dipylidium caninum

C. Diphyllobothrium latum

D. Capillaria philippinensis

C

True statements regarding Plasmodium

species:

I. Blood smear of a patient infected with

P. falciparum may reveal lancet shaped

erythrocytes.

II. P. vivax and P. ovale have an

exoerythrocytic stage in their life cycle.

III.P. falciparum infection is referred to as

malignant tertian malaria.

IV.The most common plasmodial specie

causing the most fatal form of malaria is

P. malariae.

A. I only

B. I, II

C. I, II, III

D. I, II, III, IV

C

The World Health Organizations has

identified the microorganisms responsible

for most nosocomial infections as the

"ESKAPE" pathogens. True statements

regarding these microorganisms:

I. Klebsiella pneumoniae and

Pseudomonas aeruginosa are the

causative agents of hospital-acquired

pneumonia.

II. Acinetobacter baumanni is typically

contracted from the administration of

parenteral solutions.

III.There are strains of Staphylococcus

aureus resistant to methicillin and

vancomycin.

IV.Escherichia coli and Enterococcus

species are also included in this

acronym.

A. I only

B. I, II

C. I, II, III

D. I, II, III, IV

D

Major risk factors for hypertension and

cardiovascular diseases, except:

A. Obesity

B. Smoking

C. Genetics

D. None of the above

A

hardening of the arteries due to build-

up of plaque is known as

A. Atherosclerosis

B. Coronary heart disease

C. Stroke

D. Deep vein thrombosis

A

A disinfectant may be described as a

chemical agent that:

A. Kills the vegetative forms of pathogenic

microorganisms but not necessarily the

spores.

B. Kills all microorganisms and spores

present on a surface.

C. Reduces the population of

microorganisms on a surface.

D. Inhibits the growth and reproduction

of microbes on the body of living

organisms.

C

The DOH declared an outbreak of

which disease in the Philippines in 2018

continuing into 2019?

A. Dengue

B. Malaria

C. Measles

D. Swine flu

A

Which of the following contains the

highest amount of cholesterol?

A. Egg

B. Chicken

C. Shrimp

D. Cheddar

B

Nosocomial infections are:

A. Contracted when the pathogen enters

the body through the nose.

B. Developed while patient is in the

hospital.

C. Affecting the nasal passages.

D. Acquired through open wounds.

D

The '4 o'clock habit' initiative of the

Department of Health aims to eliminate

the ____________.

A. Coronavirus

B. Retrovirus

C. Zika Virus

D. Dengue Virus

D

A program that has backyard gardening

community projects and putting of herbal

plants as its major activities.

A. ABKD

B. Nutrition Program

C. Sangkap Pinoy Seal

D. Herbal and Traditional Medicine

B

Spread of disease via indirect contact

happens when pathogen is present on

non-living objects, called:

A. Vehicle

B. Fomite

C. Reservoir

D.Vector

C

Which of the following are airborne

diseases?

I. Tuberculosis III. Measles

II. COVID-19 IV. Influenza

A. I, II

B. I, IV

C. I, II, III

D. I, II, III, IV

C

Functions of quality control as part of GMP

include the following, except:

A. Sampling, specifications, testing

B. Documentation & release

C. Auditing

D. Analytical control

C

Total quality means:

A. Production is responsible for quality.

B. Quality necessitates strict adherence to

standard.

C. Quality is everybody's business.

D. All of the above

A

Defined as the sum total of organized

arrangements made with the objective of

ensuring that products will be consistently

of the quality required by their intended

use.

A. Quality assurance

B. Quality control

C. GMP

D.Monograph

A

This enumerates the characteristics of all

the materials that go into the product and

the permissible range of purity of each

ingredient.

A. Raw material specification

B. Monograph

C. Formula

D.Finished product specification

A

Defined as the closeness of agreement

between the reference value and the

measured value.

A. Accuracy

B. Precision

C. Specificity

D. Robustness

A

A researcher is analyzing a plant for

the content of a particular cyanogenic

glycoside, amygdalin. What type of analysis

would this be classified as?

A. Ultimate analysis

B. Proximate analysis

C. Qualitative analysis

D. Independent analysis

B

When a drug product falls below required

specifications of potency, what type of

defect is it?

A. Ocular

B. Internal

C. Attribute

D. External

B

What element of the production line

poses the greatest risk for product

contamination?

A. Product

B. Personnel

C. Procedure

D. Equipment

D

Indicator used in permanganometry:

A. Methyl Red

B. Methyl Orange

C. Phenolphthalein

D. None of the above

C

In basic conditions, methyl orange would

appear:

A. Red

B. Orange

C. Yellow

D. Pink

A

This substance will impart enough

alkalinity to suppress the Al-EDTA complex

in the presence of a Mg-EDTA complex:

A. Triethanolamine

B. Thioglycol

C. Dimercaptopropanol

D. Potassium Cyanide

D

In titration, this is the term for the solution

of known concentration that is used to

react with the analyte.

A. Titrant

B. Titrand

C. Standard solution

D. Both a & c

E. Both b & c

A

Endpoint refers to the point at which the

titration is observed to be complete. The

equivalence point AKA the stoichiometric

point, which occurs after the endpoint, it is

when the number of moles of titrant have

reacted with an equal number of moles of

analyte..

A. First statement is correct.

B. Second statement is correct.

C. Both statements are correct.

D. Both statements are incorrect.

C

What is the basis of selecting the right

indicator for a given acid-base titration?

A. Molarity of acid/base

B. Normality of acid/base

C. pH at equivalence point

D. Both a & b

C

For number 63 and 64, refer to the

following procedure for the preparation

and standardization of 0.5 N Alcoholic

Potassium Hydroxide. "Accurately weigh

5 g of potassium biphthalate, previously

crushed lightly and dried at 120 C for 2

hours, and dissolve in 75 mL of CO2-free

water. Add 2 drops of phenolphthalein

TS, and titrate with sodium hydroxide

solution until a permanent pink color is

produced."

What is responsible for the pink coloration

at endpoint?

A. Phenolphthalein - Sodium Hydroxide

complex

B. Conjugate acid of phenolphthalein

C. Conjugate base of phenolphthalein

D.Free phenolphthalein

D

For number 63 and 64, refer to the

following procedure for the preparation

and standardization of 0.5 N Alcoholic

Potassium Hydroxide. "Accurately weigh

5 g of potassium biphthalate, previously

crushed lightly and dried at 120 C for 2

hours, and dissolve in 75 mL of CO2-free

water. Add 2 drops of phenolphthalein

TS, and titrate with sodium hydroxide

solution until a permanent pink color is

produced."

What is the estimated pH range of the

resulting pink solution?

A. 2-3.5

B. 4.2-6

C. 6-7

D. 8-10

C

A buret with a glass stopcock is used in

acidimetry. An example of its use would be

in the direct assay of sodium bicarbonate.

A. First statement is correct.

B. Second statement is correct.

C. Both statements are correct.

D. Both statements are incorrect.

A

Adsorption indicators are used in Fajans

method of precipitimetry. Examples of

such include tetrabromophenolphthalein

ethyl ester, tetrabromofluorescein, and

eriochrome black.

A. First statement is correct.

B. Second statement is correct.

C. Both statements are correct.

D. Both statements are incorrect.

D

This method of analysis involves a change

in the valence of the reacting products.

A. Neutralization

B. Precipitation

C. Complexation

D. Oxidation-Reduction

A

H2O2 is assayed using what type of

Permanganometry method?

A. Direct

B. Residual

C. Indirect

D. NOTA

B

In Iodimetry, the indicator is usually added

before the endpoint. This method is used

to assay reducing agents.

A. First statement is correct.

B. Second statement is correct.

C. Both statements are correct.

D. Both statements are incorrect.

B

Approximate temperature equivalent of

bright red heat

A. 550-700 °C

B. 800-1000 °C

C. 1000-1200 °C

D. 1200-1600 °C

B

Which of the following is used in the

method II of water content determination?

I. Karl Fischer reagent

II. Toluene

III. Xylene

A. I only

B. II, III

C. I, III

D. I, II, III

D

The primary standard for Karl Fischer

reagent is _____________.

A. Sodium carbonate

B. Sodium oxalate

C. Sodium thiosulfate

D. Sodium tartrate

D

The components of the Karl Fischer

reagent include all those listed below,

except

A. Iodine

B. Sulfur dioxide

C. Pyridine

D. Ethanol

C

An analyst computed a loss on drying that

is 0.08% above the specified maximum

limit. If product monographs allow only a

1.5% limit, determine the total weight lost if

the retained sample weight is 9.374 g.

A. 0.0007 g

B. 0.140 g

C. 0.150 g

D. 0.48 g

A

The hydroxylamine (titrimetric) method,

which involves the use of a cassia flask,

is one of two methods to determine the

presence of _____ in a sample,

A. Aldehydes and ketones

B. Alkaloids

C. Alcohol

D. Acetylated fatty acids

A

In phenol content determination of a

volatile oil, the layer in the graduated neck

of the Cassia flask reached 2.7mL obtained

from a sample of 10mL after treatment

with KOH solution. The percentage of oil is:

A. 73%

B. 69%

C. 7.3%

D. 27%

D

This method that employs a suspended

weight in measuring tablet hardness.

A. Strong cobb

B. Schleuniger

C. Stokes-Monsanto

D.Erweka

D

Acceptable hardness for sublingual tablets

A. 4 kg

B. 8 kg

C. 10 kg

D. 3 kg

B

Temperature employed in dissolution

testing

A. 25 ± 5 °C

B. 37 ± 0.5 °C

C. 37 ± 2 °C

D. 100 ± 5 °C

E

Tablet friability apparatus also test the

friability of:

A. Soft Gelatin Capsule

B. Hard Gelatin Capsule

C. Liquid Filled Capsule

D. Spansule

E. NOTA

D

A female rat is used in the bioassay of

vasopressin, while a sheep is used for

parathyroid hormone.

A. First statement is correct.

B. Second statement is correct.

C. Both statements are correct.

D. Both statements are incorrect.

D

The following methods are used in the

microbiological assay of antibiotics, except:

I. Turbidimetric III. Paper disc

II. Chromatographic IV. Azeotropic

A. I, III C. II, III

B. I, IV D. II, IV

B

Test organism in the assay of Nystatin

A. Bacillus subtilis

B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

C. Micrococcus luteus

D. Klebsiella pneumoniae

C

Common microbial contaminant of hand

creams.

A. Clostridium tetani

B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C. Klebsiella pneumoniae

D. Coliforms

A

Which of the following gases can be used

to sterilize heat-labile pharmaceuticals?

A. Ethylene Oxide

B. Methylene Oxide

C. Methane gas

D. Ethane gas

D

This microorganism is used as an indicator

for membrane filtration.

A. Bacillus stearothermophilus

B. Bacillus subtilis

C. Bacillus pumilus

D. Brevundimonas diminuta

C

What animal is used in the testing of

ophthalmic containers?

A. Rabbits

B. Albino mice

C. Albino rabbits

D. B & C

A

HEPA filters remove _____ of the particles

in air with a size of _____.

A. 99.97%, 0.3 μm

B. 97.99%, 0.3 μm

C. 97.99%, 0.03 μm

D. 99.97%, 0.03 μm

C

This method is used to test for the

efficiency of membrane filters.

A. DOP

B. Henkel corp.

C. Bubble point

D. Autoclave

D

Which of the following is the correct

acceptance criteria for pyrogen testing in

rabbits?

A. ≥ 1.5 °C for 3 rabbits

B. ≤ 3.3 °C for 3 rabbits

C. < 1.5 °C for 8 rabbits

D. ≤ 3.3 °C for 8 rabbits

A

Nitrogen in organic substances is

quantitatively measured by which of the

following methods?

A. Kjeldahl method

B. Wijs method

C. Argentometric method

D. Hubl method

D

The analytical method employed in the

assay of trace metals.

A. NMR

B. IR

C. MS

D. AAS

D

Fingerprint region in the electromagnetic

spectrum

A. Ultraviolet

B. Far IR

C. Visible

D.Medium IR

A

Bending of light

A. Refraction

B. Optical rotation

C. Reflection

D. Racemization

A

Which of the following is used in

measuring the refractive index?

A. Abbe

B. Westphal

C. Thiele

D. Polarimeter

D

The reflected light in a suspension can be

measured by turbidimetry. Meanwhile, the

fluorescence of Vitamins B1 and B2 can be

measured by nephelometry.

A. First statement is correct.

B. Second statement is correct.

C. Both statements are correct.

D. Both statements are incorrect.

B

In normal phase column chromatography,

the mobile phase is ____ than the

stationary phase.

A. More polar

B. Less polar

C. Heavier

D. Lighter

A

The following principles are employed in

chromatographic separations, except:

I. Absorption

II. Partition

III. Ion exchange

IV. Affinity

A. I only

B. I, II

C. II, III

D. II, III, IV

B

Which of the following is the most widely

used chromatographic method in drug

analysis?

A. TLC

B. HPLC

C. SEC

D. IEC

D

The stationary phase in gas

chromatography is a/an ___________.

A. Cellulose

B. Silica

C. Inert gas

D. High boiling point liquid