Health Psychology and Psychological Disorders

Comprehensive practice flashcards covering health psychology, stress models, epidemiological metrics, anxiety, mood, psychotic, personality disorders, and psychotherapeutic approaches.

What framework of health and illness is depicted in this diagram showing the interaction of biological, psychological, and social factors?

The biopsychosocial model of health.

In the biopsychosocial model, what specific elements constitute biological, psychological, and social factors?

Biological factors include genetics, physical health, disability, and the direct effects of substances on the body. Psychological factors encompass behaviour, personality, motivation, thinking patterns, lifestyle, stress coping, and health beliefs. Social factors include access to health care, income, and the influence of family, friends, and media.

How is stress defined, and under what conditions does a person experience it?

Stress is a psychobiological process representing the body and mind's response to a threat or demand. It arises when the demands a person faces outweigh the resources they believe they have to meet them.

Which three-stage physiological stress response model is shown in this curve adapted from Hans Selye (1974)?

The general adaptation syndrome (GAS), comprising the Alarm, Resistance, and Exhaustion stages.

What physiological changes occur during the Alarm and Resistance stages of Hans Selye's general adaptation syndrome?

In the Alarm stage, adrenaline and other hormones are released in the fight-or-flight response. In the Resistance stage, respiration and heart rate return toward normal, but glucose levels and some stress hormones stay high as the body continues coping.

What happens during the Exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome, and how does it affect physical health?

After prolonged stress, the body's defences break down and the immune system is suppressed, making the individual more prone to infection, slower to recover, and vulnerable to chronic illness.

According to Richard Lazarus's transactional model, what is the role of primary appraisal?

The person judges whether a situation is irrelevant, benign, or stressful; if stressful, it is classified as harm or loss that has already happened, a threat of harm to come, or a challenge to rise to.

What occurs during secondary appraisal in Richard Lazarus's transactional model of stress?

The individual weighs up their options and decides how to respond, utilizing emotional forecasting (anticipating the emotions each response might bring) to shape their choice.

What is the difference between incidence and prevalence in psychological epidemiology?

Incidence is the number of new cases of a disorder that appear in a population over a given period of time. Prevalence is the total number of existing cases (both new and continuing) in a population at a specific point in time.

How are morbidity, co-morbidity, and mortality defined?

Morbidity refers to illness or the presence of a disorder or disease in a population. Co-morbidity occurs when an individual meets the criteria for more than one disorder at the same time (such as anxiety and depression). Mortality refers to death, with the mortality rate calculated as the number of deaths due to a disorder divided by the total population.

What differentiates specific phobia from social anxiety disorder (social phobia)?

Specific phobia involves persistent, marked fear and active avoidance of a specific object or situation (such as heights, animals, or injections) out of proportion to danger. Social anxiety disorder involves marked fear of social situations where the individual may be scrutinised, judged, or negatively evaluated by others.

What are the core characteristics of generalised anxiety disorder (GAD)?

Persistent, high levels of uncontrollable worry about many different events or activities, accompanied by restlessness, fatigue, difficulty concentrating, irritability, muscle tension, and disturbed sleep.

What defines panic disorder, and what duration of ongoing worry is required for diagnosis?

It is characterised by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks accompanied by physical symptoms (palpitations, dizziness, difficulty breathing, nausea) and a defining feature of ongoing worry about having more attacks lasting for at least $1\text{ month}$.

How is agoraphobia diagnosed, and what fear drives the avoidance behaviour?

It requires marked fear or anxiety about two or more of: using public transport, being in open spaces, being in enclosed spaces, being in a crowd, or being outside the home alone. The fear stems from the thought that escape or help would be difficult if panic-like or embarrassing symptoms occur.

What is substance or medication-induced anxiety disorder?

An anxiety disorder that arises directly from substance intoxication or withdrawal.

What criteria and time threshold define a major depressive episode?

A cluster of symptoms, including persistent feelings of sadness and despair and a loss of interest in pleasurable activities, present most of the day nearly every day for at least $2\text{ weeks}$, marking a clear change from prior functioning.

What distinguishes Bipolar I disorder from Bipolar II disorder?

Bipolar I is defined by at least one full manic episode (depressive episodes are common but not strictly required). Bipolar II requires at least one hypomanic episode (a milder high, never a full manic episode) combined with at least one major depressive episode.

What criteria define a manic episode in bipolar disorder?

A period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood with increased activity or energy lasting at least $1\text{ week}$ (or any duration if hospitalisation is required), accompanied by $3$ or more diagnostic symptoms ($4$ if the mood is only irritable).

What is the distinction between positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

Positive symptoms are behavioural excesses or additions to normal functioning (e.g., hallucinations, delusions, disorganised speech). Negative symptoms are behavioural deficits where normal functions are reduced or absent (e.g., flattened emotions, social withdrawal, impaired attention, poverty of speech, and avolition).

What is avolition in the context of negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A lack of motivation or drive, often contributing to deterioration in self-care, work, and personal relationships.

What are delusions, and what are two common forms seen in schizophrenia?

Delusions are fixed false beliefs held with strong conviction that are out of touch with reality and not shared by the person's cultural group. Two common forms are delusions of grandeur (believing oneself uniquely powerful or important) and delusions of persecution (believing oneself targeted or harmed).

What are hallucinations, and which type is most frequently reported in schizophrenia?

Hallucinations are sensory perceptions occurring in the absence of, or as a distortion of, an external stimulus. Auditory hallucinations (such as hearing voices) are the most common form, though visual, olfactory, gustatory, and tactile types also occur.

How does the diathesis-stress model explain the development of schizophrenia?

It posits that an underlying vulnerability (diathesis, largely genetic) combines with environmental stress to cross a diagnostic threshold; an individual with strong genetic loading requires less environmental stress to trigger the disorder.

What biological and familial factors contribute to schizophrenia?

Genetic vulnerability, neurochemical abnormalities (particularly dopamine and serotonin), structural brain abnormalities (especially in the prefrontal and temporal lobes), expressed emotion in the family, and precipitating stress.

What are the four sequential steps in the neurodevelopmental hypothesis of schizophrenia?

Step 1: Early insults to the brain (prenatal infection, malnutrition, obstetrical complications); Step 2: Disrupted maturation of the developing brain; Step 3: Subtle neurological damage emerging gradually; Step 4: Increased vulnerability to schizophrenia and minor physical anomalies surfacing in adolescence or early adulthood.

What distinguishes obsessions from compulsions in obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

Obsessions are persistent, uncontrollable intrusions of unwanted thoughts, urges, or images that cause anxiety. Compulsions are repetitive ritual behaviours (such as hand washing, checking, or counting) performed to reduce that anxiety or ward off a dreaded event.

What defines post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), and what are its four symptom clusters?

PTSD is a psychological disturbance lasting more than $1\text{ month}$ following exposure to a traumatic event. Its four symptom clusters are intrusion (re-experiencing), avoidance, changes in mood or cognition, and elevated arousal.

When are personality traits regarded as personality disorders, and what is their estimated general population prevalence?

When enduring patterns of perceiving, relating to, and thinking about the environment and oneself are inflexible, maladaptive, and cause significant functional impairment or subjective distress; general population prevalence is estimated at $2\text{ to }3\%$.

What three clusters categorise personality disorders, and what general behavioural styles characterise each?

Cluster A involves odd thinking and eccentric behaviour (Paranoid, Schizoid, Schizotypal); Cluster B involves dramatic and erratic behaviour (Antisocial, Borderline, Histrionic, Narcissistic); and Cluster C involves severe anxiety and fear (Avoidant, Dependent, Obsessive-compulsive).

What is antisocial personality disorder, and what age threshold is required for its diagnosis?

A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others occurring since the age of $15$, indicated by at least $3$ criteria such as failure to conform to lawful behaviour, deceitfulness, impulsivity, aggressiveness, reckless disregard for safety, lack of remorse, and consistent irresponsibility.

What are the clinical features, Australian prevalence, and suicide statistics associated with borderline personality disorder (BPD)?

BPD features unstable relationships, extreme mood swings, unstable identity, abandonment fears, impulsivity, and self-mutilation. It affects approximately $1.4\text{ to }5.9\%$ of Australians; close to $10\%$ of patients die by suicide, and $10\text{ to }30\%$ of all suicide deaths carry the diagnosis.

How does research conceptualise narcissism on a continuum?

Narcissism is viewed as a trait varying by degree across the entire population rather than simply present or absent; moderate amounts can be adaptive and support confidence, whereas extreme and rigid patterns that cause harm constitute a disorder.

How do grandiose narcissism and vulnerable narcissism differ in presentation according to Paul Wink?

Grandiose narcissism is extraverted, dominant, bold, thick-skinned, and characterized by confident self-display. Vulnerable narcissism is characterized by internal insecurity, hypersensitivity, defensiveness, anxiety, and a fragile self-esteem beneath a self-absorbed exterior.

What parenting styles are linked to grandiose versus vulnerable narcissism?

Grandiose narcissism is associated with parental overvaluation (treating the child as uniquely special and entitled). Vulnerable narcissism is linked to cold, controlling, or inconsistent parenting.

How does the humanistic approach understand psychological problems and therapeutic healing?

It views problems as arising when a person loses touch with their genuine experience and innate capacity to grow. Therapy works to create conditions of acceptance in the present so the individual can experience their true self and move forward.

What is the primary goal of psychodynamic therapy?

To make the unconscious conscious and to identify and understand repeating patterns of behaviour and emotion rooted in past experiences.

What is the core premise of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), and what is its first essential skill?

The core premise is that the way we think shapes how we feel and act, and negative, unrealistic thoughts cause distress. The first skill is learning to recognise, observe, and monitor thoughts to distinguish cognitive distortions from realistic beliefs.