Med. Bac. Chapter 4 - Staphylococcus

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72 Terms

1
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Who first described Staphylococcus as a leading cause of SSTIs?

Alexander Ogsten

2
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What did Alexander Ogsten describe the appearance of Staphylococcus as?

The roe of fish

3
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Who differentiated S. aureus from S. epidermidis?

Julius Rosenbach

4
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What are the 2 species of Staphylococcus primarily responsible for most human infections?

S. aureus and S. epidermidis

5
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(T/F) S. aureus is the major culprit of human infections (~70%) and S. epidermidis is the minor (~20%).

True

6
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What group does Staphylococcus belong to?

Firmicutes

7
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Describe Staphylococci.

They are gram (+), facultatively anaerobic cocci

8
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What is the carotenoid that gives S. aureus its signature yellow/golden appearance?

Staphyloxanthin

9
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What is the special crossbridge S. aureus has that makes its cell wall unique?

Pentaglycine (Gly5)

10
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What are the 3 main reservoirs of S. aureus?

Animals, humans, and the environment.

11
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S. aureus can asymptomatically colonize what 3 areas of the human body?

URT, GIT, and skin

12
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What is the human carriage rate of S. aureus in humans?

20-30%

13
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(T/F) S. aureus is an opportunistic pathogen.

True

14
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What species of Staphylococcus is commonly attributed to community acquired UTI?

S. saprophyticus

15
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What bacteriocin is an endopeptidase that targets the pentaglycine crossbridge of S. aureus?

Lysostaphin

16
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Staphyloxanthin in S. aureus protects them from what?

ROS

17
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The majority of S. aureus infections are what?

SSTIs

18
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What is defined as “superficial papules that progress to flaccid bullae that rupture to form a purulent, scaled erythema”?

Impetigo

19
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What is defined as “localized purulent SSTIs characterized by WBC and fibrin infiltration and toxin-mediated necrosis”?

Abscesses

20
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What is an example of an abscess?

Carbuncle

21
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What are the 4 life-threatening infections S. aureus can cause besides SSTIs?

SAB (S. aureus Bacteremia), pneumonia, osteomyelitis, endocarditis

22
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Coagulation of S. aureus in blood can lead to what?

Vascular occlusion and infarction

23
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(T/F) S. aureus can also asymptomatically colonize and opportunistically infect animals and cause URTI, sepsis, mastitis, and others.

True

24
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What adherence factor is responsible for S. aureus ability to colonize the URT?

ClfB (clumping factor B)

25
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What does ClfB bind to?

Loricrin

26
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(T/F) Loricrin is the most abundance protein in the nasal cavity of humans and animals.

True

27
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(T/F) Anti-ClfB antibodies reduces S. aureus URT carriage in mice.

True

28
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Following skin entry, what 4 barriers does S. aureus encounter?

SALT (Skin associated lymphoid tissue), AMPs (antimicrobial peptides), complement, and antibodies

29
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AMPs can bind to bacterial membranes and cause what 2 types of cytotoxic pores?

Barrel-stave and toroidal

30
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What 3 virulence factors protect S. aureus from immune peptides?

Aur (aureolysin), Sak (Staphylokinase), and MprF (multiple peptide resistance factor)

31
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What is aureolysin?

A metalloprotease that cleaves immune peptides

32
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What is staphylokinase?

A kinase that inactivates immune peptides via phosphorylation

33
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What is MprF?

A lysine transferase that lysinylates membrane phospholipids, giving it a net (+) charge to repel cationic AMPs

34
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What osmoprotectants does S. aureus use to retain water (when on the skin)?

Glycine-betaine and proline

35
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What special adherence factor does S. aureus use to bind to corneocytes on the skin?

Serine-aspartate repeat protein D (SdrD)

36
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What does SdrD bind to?

Desmoglein-1

37
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(T/F) S. aureus forms coagulative clots in tissue via agglutination of cells that protect them from the immune system.

True

38
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What 2 VFs does S. aureus use to form coagulates?

Coa (coagulase) and ClfA (clumping factor A)

39
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What does Coa (coagulase) do?

Activates host thrombin and promotes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

40
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What does ClfA do?

Binds to host fibrin to form clots

41
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What is alpha hemolysin (Hla)?

A pore forming toxin (PFT) that forms homoheptameric beta-barrel pores in host membranes

42
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(T/F) Secreted Hla (alpha-hemolysin) punches holes in host tissues and causes chemiosmotic failure, barrier defects, and dermonecrosis.

True

43
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(T/F) Infiltration of immune cells to S. aureus coagulates and fibrin deposition leads to containment (i.e. abscess) and liquefactive necrosis.

True

44
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What toxin cleaves desmoglein-1 in corneocytes and causes bullous impetigo?

Exfoliative toxin A (ETA)

45
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In addition to their original roles, Aur and Sak can also inactivate what 2 immune proteins?

IgG and complement C3b

46
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Untreated SAB (S. aureus Bacteremia) can lead to what?

Septic shock

47
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What are 2 components of S. aureus surface that can act as endotoxins?

Teichoic acids and lipoteichoic acids (LTA)

48
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What toxin is primarily responsible for causing septic shock?

Toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST-1)

49
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What are some presumptive symptoms for S. aureus SSTIs?

Erythema (rash), swelling with suppuration, afebrile

50
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What are some presumptive symptoms for SAB?

Abnormal vitals, febrile (fever), hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea

51
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What is an example of an NAAT (Nucleic acid amplification test)?

Xpert MRSA/SA

52
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Xpert MRSA/SA primarily screen for what from blood and exudate samples?

mecA

53
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What are 2 direct examination tests used for definitive diagnosis of a Staphylococcal infection?

Coagulase and Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA)

54
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(T/F) The coagulase test tests for the presence of the coagulase enzyme, with a positive test showing a visible formation of a clot.

True

55
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Which of the 2 Staphylococcal pathogens are coagulase (+)?

S. aureus

56
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Which Staphylococcal pathogen is coagulase (-)?

S. epidermidis

57
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(T/F) Mannitol salt agar (MSA) is a selective differential media, with a high NaCl concentration selecting against gram (-) and for gram (+), and mannitol, of whose fermentation turns the media yellow from pH depression.

True

58
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(T/F) S. aureus can ferment mannitol and turn the agar yellow, while S. epidermidis cannot ferment mannitol.

True

59
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What was the example of a prevention strategy against infection via decolonization?

Mupirocin topical

60
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(T/F) There are currently no licensed vaccines against S. aureus.

True

61
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What is the name of the Pfizer S. aureus vaccine currently in trials?

SA4Ag (S. aureus 4 antigen)

62
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(T/F) There is 0% efficacy in preventing postoperative or surgical site SSTIs.

True

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S. aureus is resistant to beta-lactams due to what?

Beta-lactamases

64
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What was the synthetic penicillin derivative meant to be beta-lactamase resistant?

Methicillin

65
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What do methicillin and beta-lactams bind to?

PBP (penicillin binding protein)

66
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MRSA encodes what that gives them resistance to methicillin?

PBP2a that has low binding affinity

67
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What gene encodes for PBP2a?

mecA

68
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Where is mecA located?

Staphylococcal cassette chromosome mec (SCCmec)

69
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(T/F) SCCmec can participate in HGE (horizontal gene exchange) via transformation, transduction, and conjugation.

True

70
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(T/F) MRSA are less fit than MSSA.

True

71
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What are the first-line antibiotics for MSSA?

Beta-lactamase resistant cephalosporins → Cefazolin and Nafcillin

72
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What are first-line antibiotics for MRSA?

Vancomycin, clindamycin, linezolid, gentamicin