Medical law and Ethics module 2

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flashcards to study medical law and ethics

143 Terms

1
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What percentage of the round-one written exam does the Legal Environment section cover?

35%, according to the module.

2
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What is a federal system of government?

A system in which authority is shared between the national government and state governments.

3
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What are checks and balances?

Controls that let each branch of government limit and review the actions of the other branches.

4
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What does the legislative branch do?

Makes laws; at the U.S. federal level it includes the Senate and House of Representatives.

5
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What does the executive branch do?

Carries out and enforces laws; it includes the president and executive officials.

6
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What does the judicial branch do?

Interprets laws through courts and judges.

7
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What is constitutional law?

Law governing constitutional rights and the relationship between people and government.

8
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What is statutory law?

Law enacted by legislatures such as Congress or state legislatures.

9
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What is regulatory law?

Rules created by authorized government agencies to implement and enforce laws.

10
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What is common law (case law)?

Law developed through judicial decisions and prior rulings.

11
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What is precedent?

An earlier court decision used to guide decisions in similar later cases.

12
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What are the main classifications of law?

Private (civil) law and public law.

13
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What are examples of private (civil) law?

Tort, contract, property, inheritance, family, and corporate law.

14
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What are examples of public law?

Criminal, administrative, constitutional, and international law.

15
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What is civil law?

Law dealing primarily with disputes among people, organizations, or other parties; remedies often include monetary damages.

16
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What is tort law?

The area of civil law dealing with wrongful acts that injure a person or property.

17
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What remedy is common in tort cases?

Money damages to compensate for the harm.

18
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What are the two broad categories of torts?

Intentional torts and unintentional torts.

19
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What is an intentional tort?

A wrongful act committed deliberately, such as assault, battery, or false imprisonment.

20
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What is assault in tort law?

An act that causes another person to reasonably fear imminent harmful or offensive contact.

21
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What is battery in tort law?

Intentional harmful or offensive physical contact without valid consent.

22
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What is false imprisonment?

Unlawfully restricting someone's freedom of movement.

23
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What is defamation?

A false statement that harms someone's reputation.

24
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What is slander?

Defamation communicated through spoken statements.

25
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What is libel?

Defamation communicated in written or other recorded form.

26
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What is fraud?

Intentional deception intended to gain an unfair or unlawful benefit.

27
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What is invasion of privacy in health care?

Improperly intruding on a patient's privacy or disclosing confidential information.

28
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What is negligence?

Failing to act with the care a reasonably prudent person would use in similar circumstances, causing harm.

29
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How can negligence occur?

By carelessly performing an act or failing to perform a required act.

30
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What is the reasonable-person standard?

A comparison with how an ordinarily careful person would act under similar circumstances.

31
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What is contract law?

Law governing legally enforceable agreements and failures to fulfill them.

32
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What is a contract?

An agreement between parties that creates legally enforceable duties.

33
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What is consideration in a contract?

Something of value exchanged or promised as part of an agreement.

34
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What does contractual competence mean?

The parties must have the legal capacity to enter the agreement.

35
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What is an express contract?

An agreement whose terms are stated explicitly, orally or in writing.

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What is an implied contract?

An agreement inferred from conduct or circumstances rather than expressly stated terms.

37
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What is breach of contract?

Failure to perform an obligation required by a contract.

38
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What is patient abandonment?

Improperly ending a care relationship without reasonable notice or an appropriate opportunity for continued care.

39
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What is public or criminal law?

Law defining conduct that the government can prosecute and punish as an offense against society.

40
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What are typical criminal penalties?

Fines, imprisonment, or both.

41
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What are two broad levels of criminal offenses?

Felonies and misdemeanors.

42
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Who prosecutes criminal cases?

The government, rather than a private plaintiff acting alone.

43
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What is administrative law?

Rules and decisions of agencies that regulate activities such as professional licensing and public health.

44
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What are the two major U.S. court systems?

Federal courts and state courts.

45
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What is exclusive jurisdiction?

Authority held by only one court or court system to hear a particular kind of case.

46
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What is concurrent jurisdiction?

Authority shared by more than one court or court system to hear a case.

47
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What is the general federal court hierarchy?

U.S. district courts, U.S. courts of appeals, and the U.S. Supreme Court.

48
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What is the general state court hierarchy?

Trial courts, intermediate appellate courts where present, and the state's highest court.

49
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What is a grand jury?

A group of citizens that reviews evidence to decide whether criminal charges should proceed through an indictment.

50
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How many people are on a grand jury, according to the module?

Typically 12 to 23 citizens.

51
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What is an indictment?

A formal accusation of a crime, often issued after grand-jury review.

52
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What is litigation?

The process of resolving a legal dispute through the courts.

53
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Who is the plaintiff?

The person or entity bringing a civil lawsuit.

54
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Who is the defendant?

The person or entity against whom a lawsuit or criminal charge is brought.

55
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What is an out-of-court settlement?

An agreement that resolves a dispute without a completed trial verdict.

56
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What does waiving a jury trial mean?

Giving up the right to have a jury decide the case, when such a waiver is allowed.

57
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What usually happens at the start of a trial?

Each side may present an opening statement describing its case.

58
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What is a closing argument?

An attorney's final summary of the evidence and reasons the fact-finder should favor that side.

59
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What is an appeal?

A request that a higher court review a lower court's ruling for legal error.

60
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What is discovery in litigation?

The pretrial process of exchanging and obtaining information relevant to the case.

61
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What is a deposition?

Sworn testimony given outside the courtroom and recorded for use in legal proceedings.

62
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What is a subpoena?

A legal order requiring someone to appear or provide testimony or evidence.

63
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What is a subpoena duces tecum?

A legal order requiring production of specified documents or records.

64
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What is the standard of proof in most civil cases?

Preponderance of the evidence: the claim is more likely true than not.

65
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What is the standard of proof for a criminal conviction?

Proof beyond a reasonable doubt.

66
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Which standard of proof is generally higher: civil or criminal?

Criminal, because conviction requires proof beyond a reasonable doubt.

67
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What is an expert witness?

A person with specialized knowledge who helps a judge or jury understand evidence or professional standards.

68
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What might a medical expert witness explain?

The applicable standard of care and whether particular medical conduct met it.

69
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How should a health professional behave when testifying?

Be truthful and calm, act professionally, stick to facts, and ask for clarification when a question is unclear.

70
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What is a medical practice act?

State legislation setting rules for practicing medicine and for licensing and disciplining physicians.

71
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What do medical practice acts establish?

Licensing boards, entry requirements, renewal rules, practice limits, and grounds for discipline.

72
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Why do medical practice requirements vary across the United States?

Medical licensing is largely regulated at the state level.

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What is physician licensure?

Official state authorization to practice medicine after meeting applicable education, examination, and other requirements.

74
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What is the USMLE?

The United States Medical Licensing Examination, a multistep exam used in physician licensure.

75
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What does endorsement mean in professional licensing?

A licensing authority's approval of credentials or qualifications from another jurisdiction.

76
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What is reciprocity in physician licensing?

An arrangement recognizing licensing qualifications across jurisdictions under applicable rules.

77
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What is license registration or renewal?

Periodic maintenance of a professional license, often involving fees and continuing education.

78
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What is CME?

Continuing Medical Education: learning activities physicians complete to maintain knowledge and meet certain licensing requirements.

79
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What CME amount does the module cite?

75 hours over three years; actual requirements depend on the jurisdiction and may change.

80
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When might a physician be exempt from obtaining a separate state license, according to the module?

Certain federal-facility work, emergencies, residency, or research-only roles; legal exemptions vary by location and circumstance.

81
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What can lead to suspension or revocation of a medical license?

Serious unprofessional conduct, criminal acts, fraud, or an impairment affecting safe practice.

82
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What is licensure for an allied health professional?

Legal authorization to practice a regulated occupation after meeting prescribed qualifications.

83
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What is professional certification?

Recognition by a certifying body that someone meets specified standards or has passed an assessment.

84
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How do licensure and certification differ?

Licensure is government permission to practice; certification usually verifies qualifications through a professional organization.

85
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What is accreditation?

A formal review of whether an institution or program meets established quality standards.

86
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What does an accrediting organization review?

A program's policies, procedures, operations, and performance against defined standards.

87
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What organizations are named as accreditation examples in the module?

JCAHO (the historical name associated with The Joint Commission) and CAAHEP.

88
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What is the standard of care in health care?

The level of knowledge, skill, and care expected of a reasonably competent professional in comparable circumstances.

89
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What is patient confidentiality?

A professional and legal duty to safeguard patient information from unauthorized access or disclosure.

90
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When may patient information be disclosed?

When authorized by the patient or otherwise permitted or required by applicable law.

91
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What does the module emphasize about patient privacy?

Patients' health information and medical records must be treated as confidential.

92
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What is the prudent-person rule in informed care?

A patient should receive material information a reasonable person would need to make a treatment decision.

93
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What information should a patient receive when considering treatment?

Diagnosis, risks, benefits, alternatives, likely outcome without treatment, and relevant pain or costs.

94
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What is a statute of limitations?

The deadline for starting a legal claim.

95
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What is the discovery rule?

A rule that can start or delay the limitations period until an injury was or reasonably should have been discovered.

96
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How long is the statute of limitations for medical claims, according to the module?

Often one to three years, but the actual deadline varies significantly by state and claim.

97
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What is the purpose of Good Samaritan laws?

To provide certain liability protections for people who voluntarily give emergency assistance under specified conditions.

98
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What limits generally apply to Good Samaritan protections?

The helper should act in good faith and within appropriate abilities; exact duties and protections depend on local law.

99
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What does the module say about stopping emergency aid once begun?

Continue until qualified help takes over or continuing becomes impossible; actual legal duties vary.

100
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What does respondeat superior mean?

"Let the master answer": an employer may be legally responsible for employee acts within the scope of employment.