Micro Exam 2 Staph and Strep

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48 Terms

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Normal flora of the skin

the skin’s environment, shaped by secretions that support certain microbial growth, and inhibits others

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what do sebaceous and sweat glands supply?

water, amino acids, and lipids

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how does normal flora help regulate skin pH and prevent pathogens?

  • normal flora breaks down skin lipids, produces fatty acids which lower pH

  • the acidic environment inhibits the growth of potential pathogens


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explain how moisture impacts bacterial growth

high moisture levels act as “hot spots” for bacterial growth

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what are the 3 groups of normal flora

diphtheroid, staphylococci, yeast

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describe diphtheroids

  • gram positive

  • pleomorphic rods; has lower virulence (disease causing)


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describe staphylococci

  • gram positive cocci

  • coagulase negative staphylococci


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describe yeasts

the fungal components of the normal skin flora

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what are the 2 conditions required for acne?

  • excessive secretion of sebum

  • excessive growth of Propionibacterium acnes


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describe the pathogenic mechanism of Propionibacteria acnes

  • anaerobic

  • colonizer hair follicles

  • enhanced by oily secretions

  • causes follicles to become plugged and inflamed


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what are the locations of acne?

  • areas where sebaceous glands are well developed

  • face, upper chest, back


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describe the stages of acne

  • plugged hair follicle

  • accumulation of skin and sebum, bacteria colonized and releases chemicals into the bloodstream

  • immune response occurs to bacterial proliferation, causes mild inflammation and white blood cell recruitment

  • marked inflammation and potential scarring


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describe the characteristics of family staphylococceae: metabolism, morphology, biochemical, blood breakdown, habitat, clinical role

  • aerobic + facultative anaerobic (respiration and fermentation)

  • gram positive clumps/clusters

  • catalase positive

  • skin and mucous membranes

  • frequently found as pathogens in humans


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what is special about staph aureus?

  • only coagulase positive staph

  • causes superficial, deep and toxic-mediated illnesses


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folliculitis

  • small red bumps at site of hair follicle

  • contains pus

  • clears after hair is pulled


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what is hot tub folliculitis caused by?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa, NOT S. aureus

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furuncle

  • boil

  • skin infection that penetrates subcutaneous tissue

  • more serious and painful than folliculitis


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carbuncle

  • cluster of boils

  • infection of skin and subcutaneous tissue

  • largest, most painful superficial infection

  • often occurs in areas with thicker skin


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wound infections

occurs when bacteria enters the body through broken skin

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deep abscesses and septicemia

infections that spread throughout the blood into organs

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when does pneumonia occur

if bacteria reaches lungs

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Pseudomembranous Enterocolitis

  • rare complication

  • normal intestinal flora is reduced

  • S. aureus overgrows and causes intestinal abscesses


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describe food poisoning: definition, symptoms, onset, treatment

  • An INTOXICATION, not an infection. Bacteria secretes an enterotoxin into food

  • fever, vomiting, diarrhea

  • 2-6 hours after ingestion

  • generally self-limiting, no treatment required


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scaled skin syndrome

  • caused by a secreted exotoxin

  • results in peeling of the skin


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what is the function of staph aureus cell wall + protein A

protein A binds to antibodies, interferes with phagocytosis, while helps S. aureus evade the immune system

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coagulase

coagulates blood or plasma by converting fibrinogen to fibrin

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hemolysin

lyses human and animal red blood cells

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hyaluronidase

breaks down hyaluronic acid, which binds connective fibers

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DNase

breaks down DNA

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lipase

breaks down lipids in the skin

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Beta-lactamase

breaks down penicillins, making the bacteria resistant to penicillin therapy

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TSST-1

exotoxin responsible for Toxic Shock Syndrome

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enterotoxins

exotoxins that act in the gut; associated with food poisoning and enterocolitis

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what is Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

nosocomial infection that is acquired within 72 hours of being admitted to the hospital


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best treatment for MRSA

vancomycin; last resort

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what is the major difference between S. aureus and coagulase negative staphylococci?

CNS are less virulent, but they cause opportunistic infections

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Staph Epidermidis: Where is it found? What infections are associated? What are the identifying factors? What is the novobiocin result?

  • skin, hair follicles, mucous membranes

  • infections involving foreign bodies/devices, like catheters

  • white, nonhemolytic colonies, catalase positive, coagulase negative, DNAse negative

  • sensitive


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Staph saprophyticus: What is it associated with? What are the identifying factors? Novobiocin result?

  • UTIs, especially in active young females

  • white, nonhemolytic colonies, catalase positive, coagulase negative, DNase negative

  • resistant


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Staph intermedius: What is it associated with? What is the hemolysis pattern?

  • dog bites

  • beta hemolytic


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how is micrococcus different from staphylococcus?

it uses oxidative metabolism NOT fermentative metabolism

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what are the identifying characteristics of micrococcus?

coagulase negative, mannitol positive, oxidative

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what is the catalase test?

  • Differentiates staph positive from negative

  • the test with hydrogen peroxide and bubbling

  • bubbles = positive, staph

  • no bubbles = negative, strep


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what is coagulase test

  • use this once you know its staph

  • decides between S. aureus and CNS

  • S aureus, coag +

  • CNS, coag -


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what indicates a positive coagulase test?

clumping on the sides of the test tube, negative is no clumping

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free vs bound coagulase test

free- tube, clot

bound- side, clumping

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why is MSA selective

its high salt concentration inhibits most bacteria while allowing staphylococci and micrococcaceae to grow

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why is MSA differential

it differentiates organisms based on their ability to ferment mannitol

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what color indicates mannitol fermentation on MSA

yellow