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In the preoperative teaching plan for a client scheduled for total laryngectomy and radical neck resection, the nurse would give highest priority to the:
a. client not being able to perform deep-breathing exercises.
b. client not being able to speak normally again.
c. endotracheal tube being in place for 2 to 3 days.
d. insertion of a gastrostomy tube during surgery for feeding
b. client not being able to speak normally
2. The ambulatory care nurse would arrange for periodic monitoring of blood levels for a client with COPD who is beginning to use
a. zafirlukast (Accolate).
b. theophylline (Theo-Dur).
c. pratropium (Atrovent).
d. beclomethasone (Vanceril).
b. theophylline (Theo-Dur). - Chemical Similar to Caffine
A 62-year-old patient is seen in the emergency department with an epistaxis. When a patient has an epistaxis, the correct nursing interventions would be:
a. place the patient in Fowlers position with the head forward
b. place the patient in low Flowers position with the head hyperextended
c. compress the nostrils tightly below the bone and hold for 1 minute
d. place hot compress over the nose
b. place the patient in Fowlers position with the head forward
4. The patient has been admitted for possible carcinoma of the larynx. The first sign or symptom that may be present in carcinoma of the larynx is often:
a. Pain in the larynx
b. Hemoptysis
c. Persistent hoarseness
d. Dysphagia
c. Persistent hoarseness hoarseness for 2 weeks
A patient, age 68, has a long history of COPD and is admitted to the hospital with cor pulmonale. He says his doctor said his heart was failing and asks whether he is having a heart attack. Which explanation by the nurse is most correct?
a. You aren't having a heart attack, but your heart has been damaged by changes in your lungs caused by respiratory disease
b. It could be a heart attack, and when the heart is damaged it causes respiratory damage too
c. It isn't a heart attack, but your heart has gradually weakened over the years, causing respiratory disease
d. It is probably a heart attack, since cor pulmonale mean that the heart isn't getting enough blood and become too weak to pump
a. You aren't having a heart attack, but your heart has been damaged by changes in your lungs caused by respiratory disease
The patient with COPD is prescribed leukotriene modifier drug, montelukast (Singulair). The nurse points out that the major advantage of this drug is it:
a. has no GI side effects.
b. provides bronchodilation and anti-inflammatory effects.
c. controls acute asthma episodes.
d. can be substituted for all other asthma remedies.
b. provides bronchodilation and anti-inflammatory effects.
9. A patient who has had left pneumonectomy to remove a lung cancer is returned to the unit from surgery. The nurse should position the patient in a:
a. high Fowlers
b. semi-Fowlers
c. right side-lying
d. left side-lying
d. left side-lying
10. The nurse participating in a client care conference with other health team members is discussing the condition of a client with adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The physician states that because the fluid in the alveoli, surfactant production is failing. The nurse understands that the consequences of insufficient surfactant:
a. Atelectasis and viral infection
b. Bronchoconstriction and stridor
c. Collapse of the alveoli and decreased compliance
d. Decreased ciliary action and retained
c. Collapse of the alveoli and decreased compliance
The nurse suspects the patient is developing ARDS. The nurse would expect to note which of the following abnormal findings documented on the client's medical record?
a. Decreased cardio output
b. Increased cardiac output
c. hyperactive bowel sounds
d. Increased central venous pressure
a. Decreased cardio output
14. The nurse assesses a client with pneumonia and notes decreased lung sounds on the left side and decreased lung expansion. What is nurse's best action?
a. Have the client cough and deep breathe
b. Check oxygen saturation and notify the health care provider
c. Perform an arterial blood gas analysis
d. Increased oxygen flow to 10
b. Check oxygen saturation and notify the health care provider
An older adult client with heart failure asks if she should get a flu shot. Which is the nurses best response
a "Yes, because of your heart failure you are at greater risk for complications."
b. "Yes, if it has been longer than 5 years since your last flu vaccination."
c. "No, your heart failure makes you too weak to get the live virus vaccine."
d. "No, the vaccine will interact with your heart
a "Yes, because of your heart failure you are at greater risk for complications."
The clients ordered to be treated with Singulair. The nurse anticipates the client will experience what type of change in her laboratory values?
a. Abnormal liver function tests
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Increased potassium level
d. Change in cardiac enzymes
a. Abnormal liver function tests - Liver toxic
17. Four hours after mechanical ventilation is initiated for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) results include a pH 7.51, Pa02 of 82 mm Hg, PaCO2 of 26 mm Hg, HCO3- of 23 mEq/L (23 mmol/L). The nurse will anticipate the need to:
A) increase the respiratory rate.
B) increase the FIO2.
C) decrease the respiratory rate.
and increasing the respiratory rate and tidal
D) increase the tidal volume.
C) decrease the respiratory rate.
The patient's PaCO2 and pH indicate respiratory alkalosis caused by too high a respiratory rate.
The PaO2 is appropriate for a patient with COPD and increasing the respiratory rate and tidal volume would further lower the PaCO2.
18. During a morning assessment of a 63 year old male with a history of Heart Failure the nurse notices that the patient's sputum is frothy and pink. Which condition could this finding indicate?
a. Croup
b. Tuberculosis
c. Viral infection
d. Pulmonary edema
d. Pulmonary edema
- TB would be blood tinged
19. The nurse explains that a serious complication of patients chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is cor pulmonale, which is exhibited by - RHF (Rocks body)
a. distended neck veins.
b. weight loss.
c. confusion and disorientation.
d. excessive coughing
a. distended neck veins.
The nurse administers prescribed therapies for a patient with cor pulmonale and right-sided heart failure. Which assessment could be used to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapies?
a. Observe for distended neck veins.
b. Auscultate for crackles in the lungs.
c. Palpate for heaves or thrills over the heart.
d. Monitor for elevated white blood cell
a. Observe for distended neck veins.
20. The patient with sleep apnea is fitted with a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) mask, which:
a. delivers constant positive pressure to keep airway open
b. requires the patient to be intubated
c. delivers oxygen only when the patient becomes apneic
d. delivers negative pressure to stimulate respiration -
a. delivers constant positive pressure to keep airway open
The nurse is caring for a client with a new tracheostomy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse's immediate action?
a. Cuff pressure readings consistently between 14 and 20 mm Hg.
b. Need to change Velcro tube holders three times in 1 day.
c. Crackling sensation around the neck when skin is palpated.
d. Small amount of bleeding around the incision for the first few days.
c. Crackling sensation around the neck when skin is palpated. - EmPhySema
An older adult is admitted to the emergency department with respiratory symptoms. Which client symptom requires the nurse to intervene immediately?
a. Confusion
b.Scattered wheezing
c.Crackles
d.Flushed cheeks
a. Confusion
Which client does the nurse caution to avoid taking over the counter decongestants for manifestations of cold or flu?
a. Young man with a latex allergy
b.Middle-aged woman with hypertension
c. Teenage woman who is taking oral contraceptives d.Older man who has had type 1 diabetes mellitus for 20 years
b.Middle-aged woman with hypertension
Which person is at greatest risk for developing a community-acquired pneumonia?
a. Middle-aged teacher who typically eats a diet of Asian foods
b.Older adult who smokes and has a substance abuse problem
c.Older adult with exercise-induced wheezing
d. Young adult aerobics instructor who is a vegetarian
b.Older adult who smokes and has a substance abuse problem
The patient with long term obstructive pulmonary disease has a pH of 7.33, HCO3 of 18 meq/L, and PaCO2 of 40 mm Hg. These laboratory values are consistent with which acid base imblanace
a. Respiratory alkalosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Metabolic acidosis
d. Metabolic acidosis
A patient who is lethargic and exhibits deep, rapid respirations has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.32, Pa02 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 37 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?
A. Metabolic acidosis
В. Metabolic alkalosis
С.Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory
A. Metabolic acidosis
A 22 year old caucasian male who states no other medical history, comes in to the emergency room complaining of fever, cough and dsypnea. Chest xray reveals pneumonia. Based on this information, the physician prescribes:
a. fluoroquinolone
b. a macrolide
c. vancomycin
d. a B-lactam
b. a macrolide - macrolide (erythromycin, azithromycin Zithromax)
A patient who has just been admitted with pneumococcal pneumonia has a temperature of 101.6° F with a frequent cough and is complaining of severe pleuritic chest pain. Which of these prescribed medications should the nurse give first?
a. guaifenesin (Robitussin)
b. acetaminophen (Tylenol)
c. azithromycin
c. azithromycin
29. Which statement made by the nurse when explaining the purpose of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) to the patients caregiver is accurate
a. "PEEP will push more air into the lungs during inhalation."
b. "PEEP prevents the lung air sacs from collapsing during exhalation."
c. "PEEP will prevent lung damage while the patient is on the ventilator."
d. "PEEP allows the breathing machine to deliver 100% 02 to the lungs."
b. "PEEP prevents the lung air sacs from collapsing during exhalation."
After the nurse give IV atropine to a patient with symptomatic type 1, second degree atrioventricular (AV) block, which finding indicates that the drug has been effective
a. Increase in the patient's heart rate
b. Increase in strength of peripheral pulses
c. Decrease in premature atrial contractions
d. Decrease in premature ventricular contractions
a. Increase in the patient's heart rate
Which therapeutic effect of atropine is expected after administration?
a. improved urination
b. increased salivation
c. increased heart rate
d. relieved constipation
c. increased heart rate
The nurse is caring for a client with complete heart block (third degree atrioventricular [AV] block). What is the nurse's priority intervention?
a. Perform a cardioversion.
b. Assist with carotid massage.
c. Begin external pacing.
d. Administer adenosine (Adenocard) IV.
c. Begin external pacing.
The primary causative organisms for the infection causing sinusitis are (Select all that apply)
a. Moraxella catarrhalis
b. Pseudomonoas
c. staphylococci
d. Haemophilus influenzae
e. streptococcus pneumoniae
a. Moraxella catarrhalis
d. Haemophilus influenzae
e. streptococcus pneumoniae
The nurse assesses the older adult with a family tendency to laryngeal cancer for (Select all that apply)
a. history of smoking
b. alcohol abuse
c. chewing tabacco
d. hx of sinusitis
e. infection with human papillomavirus
a. history of smoking
b. alcohol abuse
c. chewing tabacco
e. infection with human papillomavirus
The nurse setting up the environment for tracheal suction on newly postoperative tracheostomy patient will (Select all that apply)
a. auscultate lungs for retained secretions
b. wash hands and open up sterile suction kit
c. don sterile glove and lift out catheter and connect to suction
d. Wait 20 seconds before suctioning again
e. preform suction with sterile supplies
a. auscultate lungs for retained secretions
b. wash hands and open up sterile suction kit
c. don sterile glove and lift out catheter and connect to suction
e. preform suction with sterile supplies
The nurse setting up the environment for tracheal suction on a newly postoperative tracheostomy patient will: (Select all that apply.)
a. auscultate lungs for retained secretions.
b. wash hands and open sterile suction kit.
c. don clean gloves and lift out catheter and connect to suction.
d. don sterile gloves and prepare solutions from kit.
e. perform suction with sterile supplies.
a. auscultate lungs for retained secretions.
b. wash hands and open sterile suction kit.
d. don sterile gloves and prepare solutions from kit.
e. perform suction with sterile supplies.
What is the best way for the nurse to decrease the risk of ventilator associated pneumonia
(VAP) in a ventilator-dependent client (Select all that apply)
a. provide prophylactic antibiotics
b. provide frequent oral care
c. keep head of the bed elevated
d. maintain good hand hygiene
e. perform chest percussion frequently
b. provide frequent oral care
c. keep head of the bed elevated
d. maintain good hand hygiene
What information about nutrition does the nurse teach a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) (Select all that apply)
a. Avoid drinking fluids just before and during meals
b. Rest before meals if you have dyspnea
c. Have about six small meals a day
d. Practice diaphragmatic breathing against resistance four times daily
e. Eat high fiber foods to promote gastric
a. Avoid drinking fluids just before and during meals
b. Rest before meals if you have dyspnea
c. Have about six small meals a day
What teaching is appropriate for a client with acute rhinitis and sinusitis? (Select all that apply)
a. using hot packs over sinuses
b. fluid restriction
c. saline irrigations
d. staying in a dry climate
e. taking echinacea
a. using hot packs over sinuses
c. saline irrigations
e. taking echinacea
A patient has mucositis. What actions by the nurse will improve the patients nutrition?
(Select all that apply)
a. Assist with rinsing the mouth with saline frequently
b. Encourage the client to eat room temperature foods
c. Give hot liquids to hold in the mouth
d. Provide local anesthetic medication to swish and spit
e. frequent oral rinses (not sure other TB has 'Remind the client to brush teeth gently after each meal'.)
a. Assist with rinsing the mouth with saline frequently
b. Encourage the client to eat room temperature foods
d. Provide local anesthetic medication to swish and spit
A client has folic acid deficiency anemia. Which information in the nursing history would be of concern to the nurse? The client:
a. cooks in cast iron skillet
b. does not like to eat fish
c. has one alcoholic drink a week
d. takes methotrexate
d. takes methotrexate
A client has folic acid deficiency anemia. Which information in the nursing history would be of concern to the nurse? The client
a. cooks in cast iron skillets.
b. does not like to eat fish.
с. has one alcoholic drink a week.
d. takes metformin.
d. takes metformin.
The nurse planning care of a client with multiple myeloma includes the intervention of
a. administering frequent mouth care
b. encouraging ingestion of dairy products
c. forcing fluids
d. maintaining reverse isolation
c. forcing fluids
When teaching a client who has multiple myeloma about self-care in the home, the nurse should advise the client and family take appropriate precautions to
a. alleviate diarrhea.
b. prevent fractures.
c. prevent seizures.
d. protect visitors.
b. prevent fractures.
In preparing discharge plans for a patient recently diagnosed with pernicious anemia, the nurse must include information regarding
a. Adding daily high fat, low finer supplements
b. Adding rigorous daily workout
c. Avoiding prolonged exposure to direct sunlight
d. Providing sufficient rest periods throughout the day
d. Providing sufficient rest periods throughout the day
When assessing the patient with thrombocytopenia, the nurse observes for
a. distended neck veins and skin discoloration
b. discoloration of the nails and sclera
c. petechiae on the skin and bleeding gums
d. enlarged thyroid gland and excitability
c. petechiae on the skin and bleeding gums
The nurse caring for a patient with crushing injuries from an auto accident is horrified to find the patient bleeding profusely from the nose, mouth, and rectum, as well as from the injuries.
The nurse assesses this emergency situation as:
a. hemophilia.
b. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
c. leukemia.
d. thrombocytopenia.
b. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
A patient's complete blood count shows hemoglobin of 20 g/dL and hematocrit of 54%.
Which questions should the nurse ask to determine possible causes of this finding?
a. "Have you had a recent weight loss?"
b "Do you have any history of lung disease?"
c "Have you noticed any dark or bloody stools?"
d "What is your dietary intake of meats and protein?"
b "Do you have any history of lung disease?"
A patient who is receiving methotrexate for severe rheumatoid arthritis develops a megaloblastic anemia. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about increasing oral intake of
a iron.
b folic acid.
c cobalamin (vitamin B12). - Intrinsic factor
d. ascorbic acid (vitamin C).
b folic acid.
49. Which laboratory information will the nurse monitor to detect heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) in a patient who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion?
a Prothrombin time
b Erythrocyte count
c Fibrinogen degradation products
d Activated partial thromboplastin time
d Activated partial thromboplastin time
A 64-year-old with acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) who has induction therapy prescribed asks the nurse whether the planned chemotherapy will be worth undergoing. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
a If you do not want to have chemotherapy, there are other options for treatment such as stem cell transplantation.
b The decision about chemotherapy is one that you and the doctor need to make rather than asking what I would do.
c You dont need to make a decision about treatment right now since leukemias in adults tend to progress quite slowly.
d The side effects of the chemotherapy are difficult, but AML frequently does go into remission with chemotherapy
d The side effects of the chemotherapy are difficult, but AML frequently does go into remission with chemotherapy
The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client who has acute myelogenous leukemia
(AML). Which instruction does the nurse include in this clients discharge plan?
a Avoid contact sports
b Refrain from intercourse
c Apply heat to any bruised area
d Use aspirin for headaches
a Avoid contact sports
Which risk factor does the nurse assess for to determine a clients cause of anemia?
a Antacid therapy
b Chronic alcoholism
c Congestive heart failure
d Type 2 diabetes
b Chronic alcoholism
Which of the following assessment data obtained by the nurse when caring for a patient with thrombocytopenia should be immediately communicated to the health care provider?
a The platelet count is 52,000/ ul
b The patient is difficult to arouse
c There are large bruises on the back
d The purpura on the oral mucosa
b The patient is difficult to arouse
You are making a room assignment for a newly arrived patient whose laboratory test results indicate pancytopenia. Which patient will be the best roommate for the new patient?
a Patient with digoxin toxicity
b Patient with viral pneumonia
c Patient with shingles
d Patient with
a Patient with digoxin toxicity
56. A 67-year-old who is receiving chemotherapy for lung cancer is admitted to the hospital with thrombocytopenia. Which statement made by the patient when you are obtaining the admission history is of most concern?
a "I've noticed that I bruise more easily since the chemotherapy started."
b "My bowel movements are soft and dark brown."
c "I take one aspirin every morning because of my history of angina."
d "My appetite has decreased since the chemotherapy started."
c "I take one aspirin every morning because of my history of angina."
After receiving the change-of-shift report, which pt will you assess first?
a 20-year old with possible acute myelogenous leukemia who has just arrived to the unit
b 38-year old with aplastic anemia who needs teaching about decreasing infection risk before discharge
c 40-year old with lymphedema who requests help in putting on compression stockings before getting out of bed
d 60-year old with non-Hodgkin lymphoma who is refusing the prescribed chemotherapy regimen
a 20-year old with possible acute myelogenous leukemia who has just arrived to the unit
After the nurse has finished teaching a patient about taking oral ferrous sulfate, which patient statement indicates that additional instruction is needed?
a. "I will call the doctor if my stools start to turn black."
b."I will take a stool softener if I feel constipated occasionally."
c "I should take the iron with orange juice about an hour before eating." Acid is good nomilk
d "I should increase my fluid and fiber intake while I am taking the iron
a. "I will call the doctor if my stools start to turn black."
59. A patient, age 23, is admitted with, decreased production of RBCs, thrombocytopenia, and leukopenia. A bone-marrow aspiration shows abnormal lymphocytes present. These abnormal are present in which disease?
a. Thrombocytopenia
b.Hodgkins Lymphoma
c. Acute Myelogenous leukemia
d.Sickle cell anemia
c. Acute Myelogenous leukemia
The nurse counsels a client with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) that if medication
herapy is not effective, the surgical procedure most likely to be used in the treatment is
a bone marrow transplant.
b exploratory laparotomy.
c hepatic shunt.
d splenectomy.
d splenectomy.
A client has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In reviewing this client's laboratory values, the nurse would not be surprised to see a/an
a. decreased sedimentation rate.
b. elevated RBC count.
c. normochromic anemia.
d. therapeutic
b. elevated RBC count.
Which assessment finding should the nurse caring for a patient with thrombocytopenia communicate immediately to the health care provider?
a Bruises on the patient's back.
b The patient is difficult to arouse.
c Purpura on the patient's oral mucosa.
d The patient's platelet count is
b The patient is difficult to arouse.
The nurse notes the medical history of a patient and knows information that is significant to potential bleeding problems are? (Select all that apply.)
a. Drinks one glass of wine a day.
b.Eats red meat three times a week.
C. Takes nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for the relief of arthritic pain four times a day.
d. Has cirrhosis
e. Had a cardiac valve replaced 6 months earlier.
C. Takes nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for the relief of arthritic pain four times a day.
d. Has cirrhosis- Could also be Hepatitis B
e. Had a cardiac valve replaced 6 months earlier.
The nurse is taking care of her patient who has been diagnosed with severe iron deficiency.
She is aware that the patient will show signs of: (Select all that apply)
a anorexia
b tachycardia
c systolic murmur
d hypotension
e Tinnitus
a anorexia
b tachycardia
c systolic murmur
A nurse assesses a patient who has a mediastinal chest tube. Which symptoms require the nurse's immediate intervention? (Seleet all that apply.)
a Drainage of 220 cc within 45 min of insert
b Clamping the tube when going to xray
c Pain at the insertion site
d Sudden onset of shortness of breath
e Subcutaneous emphysema
a Drainage of 220 cc within 45 min of insert
b Clamping the tube when going to xray
d Sudden onset of shortness of breath
e Subcutaneous emphysema
A patient has heparin-induced thrombocytopenia HIT). The student nurse asks how this is treated. About what drugs does the nurse instructor teach? (Select all that apply.)
a Aspirin - NO
b fondaparinux (Arixtra)
c Clopidogrel (Plavix) - NO
d bivalirudin (Angiomax)
e Solu-Medrol
b fondaparinux (Arixtra)
d bivalirudin (Angiomax)
A client has heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The student nurse asks how this is treated. About what drugs does the nurse instructor teach? (Select all that apply.)
a Argatroban (Argatroban)
b Bivalirudin (Angiomax)
c. Clopidogrel (Plavix)
d. Lepirudin (Refludan)
e. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
a Argatroban (Argatroban)
b Bivalirudin (Angiomax)
d. Lepirudin (Refludan)
73. The nurse makes a visual aid differentiating between mild, moderate, and severe anemia what signs and symptoms are manifestations of mild anemia? (Select all that apply.)
a Hemoglobin of 13 g/dL
b Palpitations
c Dyspnea on exertion
d Pallor
e Fatigue
a Hemoglobin of 13 g/dL
b Palpitations
c Dyspnea on exertion
The nurse explains to the patient on a mechanical ventilator that it is set on assist control mode, which means that the machine will? (Select all that apply.)
a deliver a set tidal volume.
b deliver a set number of breaths if the patient's rate falls.
c automatically cuts off if the patient's rate falls.
d deliver more oxygen at the end of inspiration,
e help to correct respiratory acidosis..
a deliver a set tidal volume.
b deliver a set number of breaths if the patient's rate falls.
The nurse is discussing immediate postoperative communication strategies with a client scheduled for a total laryngectomy. What information will the nurse include?
a "After surgery you will have a sore throat, but you will be able to speak."
b "You can use writing or a communication board to communicate."
c "After surgery you will have to use an electric larynx to communicate."
d "A speech therapist will evaluate you and recommend a system of communication after
b "You can use writing or a communication board to communicate."
The nurse is assessing a patient who coughed up pink, frothy sputum several times during the day. What is the probable cause for this finding? EAQ
a Tuberculosis
b Viral infection
c Bacterial infection
d Pulmonary edema
d Pulmonary edema
The nurse is caring for a 30-year-old American Indian female who is taking Rifater, a drug containing rifampin, isoniazid, and pyrazinamide. The patient asks how long she will have to take the medication. Which response explains when the patient may discontinue the medication?
a When the sputum culture comes back negative
b When the medication has been taken for 9 months
c When three consecutive sputum cultures are negative
d. When the tuberculin skin test (TST) is no longer positive
c When three consecutive sputum cultures are negative
A nurse is assessing a client who has suffered a nasal fracture. Which assessment should the nurse perform first?
a Facial pain
b Vital signs
c Bone displacement
d Airway patency
d Airway patency
6. The nurse is educating a patient about his diagnosis of stage II Hodgkin disease. Which statement indicates that the nurse's teaching has been successful?
a "The cancer has spread throughout my entire body."
b "There is only one lymph node involved."
c "The lymph nodes in both of my arms are affected."- Stage 3
d "Two nodes in my left arm area are affected."
d "Two nodes in my left arm area are affected."
Which laboratory test will the nurse use to determine whether the prescribed filgrastim (Neupogen is effective in the treatment of a patient who is receiving chemotherapy for acute lymphocytic leukemia?
A Platelet count
B Reticulocyte count
C Total lymphocyte count
D Absolute neutrophil count
D Absolute neutrophil count
When assessing a patient with chronic lung disease, the nurse finds a sudden onset of agitation and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?
a Check pupil reaction to light.
b Notify the health care provider.
c Attempt to calm and reassure the patient.
d.Assess oxygenation using pulse oximetry.
d.Assess oxygenation using pulse oximetry.
The nursing intervention that will enhance the nutritional status of a patient with COPD is to:
a. Offer small, frequent meals.
b. Encourage extra liquids with meals.
c. Assist the patient to exercise before meals.
d. Supply information about nutrition.
a. Offer small, frequent meals.
10. During change-of-shift report on a medical unit, the nurse learns that a patient with aspiration pneumonia who was admitted with respiratory distress has become increasingly agitated.Which action should the nurse take first?
a Give the prescribed PRN sedative drug.
b Offer reassurance and reorient the patient.
c Use pulse oximetry to check the oxygen saturation.
d Notify the health care provider about the patient's status.
c Use pulse oximetry to check the oxygen saturation.
The nurse is teaching a client about his fenestrated tracheostomy tube. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the tube?
а "I'm glad I will still be able to talk with this tube in place."
b "It is great that this tube does not have to be cleaned regularly."
c "This tube will not get dislodged because it never needs suctioning."
d. "Because I can't swallow, I will need another tube for eating."
а "I'm glad I will still be able to talk with this tube in place."
12. The nurse interprets which arterial blood gas values as partially compensated metabolic acidosis?
A. pH 7.28, HCO3- 19 mEq/L, PCO2 45 mm Hg, PO2 96 mm Hg
B. pH 7.45, HCO3- 22 mEq/L, PCO2 40 mm Hg, PO2 98 mm Hg
C. pH 7.32, HCO3- 17 mEq/L, PCO2 25 mm Hg, PO2 98 mm Hg
D. pH 7.48, HCO3- 28 mEq/L, PCO2 45 mm Hg, PO2 92 mm Hg
C. pH 7.32, HCO3- 17 mEq/L, PCO2 25 mm Hg, PO2 98 mm Hg
A nurse is educating high school students about avoiding risk factors for different diseases.
When a teenager laughs off a recent infection with mononucleosis as a silly "kissing disease," the nurse cautions him that mononucleosis is a risk factor for
A. acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
B chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
C Hodgkin's disease.
D severe bone marrow depression.
C Hodgkin's disease.
Which collaborative problem will the nurse include in a care plan for a patient admitted to the hospital with idiopathic aplastic anemia?
a Potential complication: seizures
b Potential complication: infection
c Potential complication: neurogenic shock
d Potential complication: pulmonary edema
b Potential complication: infection
The nurse caring for a client with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) would assess for which sign and symptom? (Select all that apply.)
a Weakness
b Bleeding
c Splenomegaly
d Decreased energy
e Recurrent infections
a Weakness
b Bleeding
d Decreased energy
e Recurrent infections