MODULE 4 - MB2

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100 Terms

1
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C

Given the graph below: Which of the

following drug is the most effective?

*SEE GRAPH IN PDF*

i. Drug X iii. Drug Z

ii. Drug Y

A. I, II, III

B. I, II |

C. I, III

D. II, III

2
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D

Four identical animals were treated with mg

doses of the following toxins. (refer to the

choices below with their corresponding

LD50), Which would most likely cause

death to the animals?

Drug LD50

Drug A 0.005 mg/kg

Drug B 10 mg/kg

Drug C 1000 mg/kg

Drug D 250 mg/kg

A. Drug D

B. Drug C

C. Drug B

D. Drug A

3
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B

A 45-year-old woman with Heart Failure is to

be treated with a Loop diuretic. Drug A in a

dose of 10 mg produces the same decrease

in blood pressure as 200 mg of Drug B.

Which of the following statements best

describes these results?

A. Drug A is more efficacious than Drug B

B. Drug A is about 20x times more potent

than Drug B

C. Toxicity of Drug A is less than that of

Drug B

D. Drug A has a wider therapeutic window

than Drug B

E. Drug A has a longer half-life than Drug B

4
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A

Sugammadex is a new drug that reverses

the action of rocuronium and certain

other skeletal muscle-relaxing agents

(nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking

agents). It appears to interact directly

with the rocuronium molecule. Which

of the following terms best describes

sugammadex?

A. Chemical antagonist

B. Partial agonist

C. Pharmacologic antagonist

D. Physiologic antagonist

5
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B

Which of the following pairs of

Pharmacodynamic Interaction is/are

correct:

i. Alcohol + Diphenhydramine: Addition

ii. Sulfadoxine + Pyrimethamine:

Synergistic

iii. Histamine + Epinephrine: Potentiation

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. I, III

D. II, III

E. I only

6
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B

In the presence of pentazocine, a higher

concentration of morphine is required to

elicit full pain relief. Pentazocine by itself

has a smaller analgesic effect than does

morphine, even at the highest dose. Which

of the following is correct regarding these

medications?

A. Pentazocine is a competitive antagonist.

B. Morphine is a full agonist, and

pentazocine is a partial agonist.

C. Morphine is less efficacious than is

pentazocine.

D.Morphine is less potent than

pentazocine.

E. Pentazocine is a noncompetitive

antagonist.

7
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D

Which of the following receptors are

coupled with Gi proteins?

i. M1 iii. Beta 1

ii. Alpha 2 iv. M2

A. I, II

B. II only

C. II, III

D. II, IV

8
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B

A 3-year-old is brought to the emergency

department having just ingested a

large overdose of tolbutamide, an

oral antidiabetic weak acidic drug. On

physical examination, the heart rate is

100/min, blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg,

and respiratory rate 20/min. Which of the

following statements about this case of

tolbutamide overdose is most correct?

A. Urinary excretion would be accelerated

by administration of NH4Cl, an acidifying

agent

B. Urinary excretion would be accelerated

by giving NaHCO3

, an alkalinizing agent

C. Less of the drug would be ionized at

blood pH than at stomach pH

D. Absorption of the drug would be slower

from the stomach than from the small

intestine

9
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D

Patients with Stage 4 CKD (chronic kidney

disease) have a Glomerular Filtration Rate

of around 15-29 mL/min. Which of the

following statements is/are true related to

this?

I. Increasing the dose of the drug will be

beneficial to the patient.

II. Decreasing the dose of the drug will be

beneficial to the patient.

III.These patients have a higher renal

clearance compared to patients with

normal kidney function.

IV.These patients have a lower renal

clearance compared to patients with

normal kidney function.

A. I, III

B. I, IV

C. II, III

D. II, IV

10
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D

Ms Ortega, a 45-year-old woman with

pneumonia, was given tobramycin, 150

mg, intravenously. After 20 minutes, the

plasma concentration was measured and

was found to be 3 mg/L. Assuming no

elimination of the drug in 20 minutes, what

is the apparent volume of distribution of

tobramycin in Ms. Ortega?

A. 5 L

B. 15 L

C. 25 L

D. 50 L

11
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D

St John's Wort, a popular botanical remedy,

used as antidepressant. Verapamil and

phenytoin are both eliminated from the

body by metabolism in the liver. Based on

this fact, which of the following statements

is correct when the St John's Wort is

combined to these two medications?

A. St John's Wort will increase the half-life

of phenytoin and verapamil

B. St John's Wort will decrease the volume

of distribution of CYP3A4 substrates

C. St John's Wort will decrease the first-

pass effect for verapamil and phenytoin.

D. St John's Wort will increase the

clearance of phenytoin and verapamil.

12
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E

Which of the following cytochrome

isoforms is responsible for metabolizing

the largest number of drugs?

A. CYP1A2

B. CYP2C9

C. CYP2C19

D. CYP2D6

E. CYP3A4

13
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D

13-14

*See PDF for photo*

In adrenergic transmission: Which of the

following blocks the process of "x"

A. Hemicholinium

B. Reserpine

C. Botulinum

D.Metyrosine

14
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D

13-14

*See PDF for photo*

In cholinergic transmission: Which of the

following blocks the process of "z"

A. Botulinum

B. Guanethidine

C. Vesamicol

D. Cocaine

15
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B

Actions and clinical uses of muscarinic

cholinoceptor agonists include which one

of the following?

A. Bronchodilation (treatment of asthma)

B. Miosis (treatment of glaucoma)

C. Decreased gastrointestinal motility

(treatment of diarrhea)

D. Decreased neuromuscular transmission

and relaxation of skeletal

16
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E

Which of the following is a direct-acting

cholinomimetic that is lipid-soluble and is

used to facilitate smoking cessation?

A. Pilocarpine

B. Bethanechol

C. Neostigmine

D.Echothiophate

E. Varenicline

17
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D

Which of the following indirect-acting

cholinomimetics are indicated for

Alzheimer's Disease:

i. Sarin iii. Galantamine

ii. Tacrine

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. I, III

D. II, III

18
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A

The following drugs falls under the class of

sympathomimetics:

i. Oxymetazoline iii. Amphetamine

ii. Terbutaline

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. I, III

D. II, III

19
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B

Which of the following agents is indicated

to suppress premature labor?

A. Methylphenidate

B. Ritodrine

C. Apraclonidine

D. Isoproterenol

20
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C

A 49-year-old man has a high blood

pressure and an enlarged prostate, which

biopsy shows to be benign prostatic

hyperplasia. He complains about urinary

retention. Which of the following drugs

would be the most appropriate initial

therapy?

A. Albuterol

B. Metoprolol

C. Prazosin

D. Timolol

21
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B

Which of the following are TRUE?

I. Adrenergic agonist increases peristalsis

II. Adrenergic agonist decreases peristalsis

III.Cholinergic agonist increases peristalsis

IV.Cholinergic agonist decreases peristalsis

A. II and IV

B. II and III

C. I and III

D. I and IV

22
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D

Which of the following B-Blockers have a

Local Anesthetic Activity:

i. Atenolol

ii. Labetalol

iii.Metoprolol

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. I, III

D. II, III

23
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A

Head and neck irradiation in cancer

patients can decrease salivary secretion

and cause dry mouth. All of the following

drugs or classes of drugs are theoretically

useful in improving secretion of saliva in

these patients except:

A. Muscarinic antagonists.

B. Muscarinic agonists.

C. Anticholinesterase agents.

D. Cevimeline

24
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B

A patient was administered a

neuromuscular blocker (NMB) prior to a

surgical procedure to produce skeletal

muscle paralysis. This NMB drug caused

initial skeletal muscle fasciculations

before the onset of paralysis. Which of the

following neuromuscular blockers was

most likely administered to this patient?

A. Cisatracurium.

B. Succinylcholine.

C. Orphenadrine

D. Tubocurarine.

25
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E

The following agents act as vasodilators,

except:

A. Fenoldopam

B. Nitroprusside

C. Minoxidil

D. Nicardipine

E. Reserpine

26
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A

Which of the following drug inhibits

Renin?

A. Aliskiren

B. Enalapril

C. Losartan

D.Furosemide

27
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B

The following agents are indicated for

Angina:

i. Ranolazine iii. Diltiazem

ii. Propranolol iv. Digoxin

A. I, II, III, IV

B. I, II, III

C. I, II, IV

D. I, III, IV

E. II, III, IV

28
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D

Certain drugs can cause severe

hypotension when combined with nitrates.

Which of the following interacts with

nitroglycerin by inhibiting the metabolism

of cGMP?

A. Nifedipine

B. Atenolol

C. Ivabradine

D. Sildenafil

29
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B

Which one of the following drugs is

associated with clinically useful or

physiologically important positive inotropic

effect in treating Heart Failure?

A. Captopril

B. Dobutamine

C. Enalapril

D. Losartan

E. Nesiritide

30
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E

Which of the following diuretics would

be most useful in the acute treatment of

a comatose patient with traumatic brain

injury and cerebral edema?

A. Acetazolamide

B. Spironolactone

C. Hydrochlorothiazide

D.Furosemide

E. Mannitol

31
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B

Which of the following agents blocks the

epithelial sodium channel and acts as a

diuretic?

A. Spironolactone

B. Triamterene

C. Chlorthalidone

D. Bumetanide

E. Dorzolamide

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D

Which of the following drugs accelerates

the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin?

A. Aminocaproic acid

B. Enoxaparin

C. Argatroban

D. Streptokinase

E. Aspirin

33
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C

A patient underwent a percutaneous

coronary angiography procedure and

placement of a stent in a coronary blood

vessel. After the said operation, he needs to

be on dual antiplatelet therapy. eg, aspirin

and clopidogrel for at least a year. Which

of the following most accurately describes

the mechanism of action of clopidogrel?

A. Clopidogrel irreversibly inhibits

cyclooxygenase

B. Clopidogrel facilitates the action of

antithrombin III

C. The active metabolite of clopidogrel

binds to the platelet ADP receptors

D. The active metabolite of clopidogrel

binds to the platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

receptors

34
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B

Which one of the following drugs

decreases cholesterol synthesis by

activating the PPAR-α?

A. Atorvastatin

B. Gemfibrozil

C. Colestipol

D. Niacin

E. Ezetimibe

35
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C

A 58-year-old female reports that she

recently stopped taking her blood pressure

medications because of swelling in her

feet that began shortly after she started

treatment. Which is most likely to cause

peripheral edema?

A. Atenolol.

B. Clonidine.

C. Felodipine

D. Hydralazine.

E. Prazosin.

36
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C

A male patient is placed on a new

medication and notes that his breasts have

become enlarged and tender to the touch.

Which medication is he most likely taking?

A. Chlorthalidone

B. Furosemide

C. Spironolactone

D. Triamterene

E. Acetazolamide

37
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B

JJ is a 62-year-old female with

hyperlipidemia and hypothyroidism.

Her current medications include

cholestyramine and levothyroxine (thyroid

hormone). What advice would you give to

WW to avoid a drug interaction between

her cholestyramine and levothyroxine?

A. Stop taking the levothyroxine as it can

interact with cholestyramine.

B. Take levothyroxine 1 hour before

cholestyramine on an empty stomach.

C. Switch cholestyramine to colesevelam as

this will eliminate the interaction.

D. Switch cholestyramine to colestipol as

this will eliminate the interaction.

E. Take levothyroxine and cholestyramine

at the same time to minimize the

interaction

38
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C

Which of the following statements is/are

correct?

i. Alprazolam binds with GABAA and

increases the duration of opening of the

Chloride Channel.

ii. Thiopental binds with GABAA and

increases the frequency of opening of

the Chloride Channel.

iii.Zolpidem is indicated for patients with

sleep disorders.

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I and II only

E. None of the above

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C

A 7-year-old child is having learning

difficulties at school. He has brief lapses

of awareness with eyelid fluttering that

occur every 4-8 min. Which drug would

be effective in this child without the

disadvantages of excessive sedation or

tolerance development?

A. Clonazepam

B. Diazepam

C. Ethosuximide

D. Gabapentin

E. Phenobarbital

40
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C

The following are the general mechanism

of action in treating seizures:

i. Inhibiting Na Channel

ii. Increase glutamate release

iii.Enhance GABA response

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. I, III

D. II, III

41
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A

Which of the following anesthetics are

administered intravenously:

i. Propofol iii. Thiopental

ii. Etomidate iv. Midazolam

A. I, II, III, IV

B. I, II, III

C. I, II, IV

D. I, III, IV

E. II, III, IV

42
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D

Which of the following agents can induce

Malignant Hyperthermia?

i. Halothane iii. Tubocurarine

ii. Succinylcholine

A. I, II

B. I, III

C. II, III

D. I, II, III

43
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B

Which of the following drugs is the most

effective in the emergency management

of malignant hyperthermia?

A. Atropine

B. Dantrolene

C. Haloperidol

D. Succinylcholine

E. Vecuronium

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B

Tolcapone may be of value in patients

being treated with levodopa-carbidopa

because it

A. Activates COMT

B. Decreases the formation of

3-O-methyldopa

C. Inhibits monoamine oxidase type A

D. Releases dopamine from nerve endings

45
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A

Which of the following anti-psychotic

agents block dopamine more compared to

serotonin?

i. Thioridazine

ii. Quetiapine

iii. Risperidone

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I and II only

E. II and III only

46
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A

Which of the following drug is indicated

for patient suffering from Major

Depression and Chronic Pain?

A. Duloxetine

B. Amoxapine

C. Fluoxetine

D. Trazodone

E. Bupropion

47
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A

Which of the following is an ergot

derivative that is used in the treatment of

idiopathic parkinsonism?

A. Bromocriptine

B. Ergotamine

C. Ergonovine

D. LSD

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D

A 40-year-old patient is about to undergo

cancer chemotherapy with a highly

emetogenic drug combination. The

antiemetic drug most likely to be included

in her regimen is

A. Sumatriptan

B. Cetirizine

C. Cimetidine

D. Ondansetron

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A

Which of the following drug is indicated as

an over-the-counter sleeping aid?

A. Diphenhydramine

B. Alosetron

C. Ketanserin

D. Tegaserod

50
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B

This drug is indicated as topical treatment

of glaucoma:

A. Alprostadil

B. Latanoprost

C. Misoprostol

D.Epoprostenol

E. Dinoprostone

51
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B

Which of the following are autacoids?

A. Epinephrine, Norepinephrine,

Dopamine, Histamine

B. Histamine, Serotonin, Eicosanoids,

Bradykinin

C. Dopamine, Serotonin, Eicosanoids,

Histamine

D. Prostaglandin, Thromboxane,

Leukotrienes, Bradykinin

52
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B

Which of the following in its parenteral

form is life-saving in severe status

asthmaticus and acts, at least in part, by

inhibiting phospholipase A2?

A. Aminophylline

B. Prednisone

C. Salmeterol

D. Zafirlukast

E. Zileuton

53
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C

Which of the following drugs does not

have a direct bronchodilator effect?

A. Epinephrine

B. Terbutaline

C. Prednisone

D. Theophylline

E. Ipratropium

54
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C

The following are asthma inflammation

"controllers" EXCEPT

A. Leukotriene modifiers

B. Inhaled corticosteroids

C. Inhaled short-acting beta-agonist

D. Systemic corticosteroids

55
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D

A form anemia resulting from deficiency

of intrinsic factor, a protein produced by

gastric mucosal cells and required for

intestinal absorption of vitamin B12.

A. Megaloblastic Anemia

B. Microcytic Anemia

C. Neutropenia

D. Pernicious Anemia

E. Thrombocytopenia

56
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A

The following are the manifestation of

Vitamin B12 deficiency:

i. Neurologic Effects

ii. Burning feet sensation

iii. Pernicious Anemia

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. I, III

D. II, III

57
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E

In a patient who requires filgrastim (G-CSF)

after being treated with anticancer drugs,

the therapeutic goal is to prevent which of

the following?

A. Allergic reactions

B. Cancer recurrence

C. Excessive bleeding

D. Hypoxia

E. Systemic infection

58
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B

Which of the following is most likely to be

required by a 5-year-old boy with chronic

renal insufficiency?

A. Deferoxamine

B. Erythropoietin

C. Filgrastim (G-CSF)

D. Oprelvekin (IL-11)

59
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C

A 45-year-old woman presented with signs

and symptoms consistent with an early

stage of rheumatoid arthritis. The decision

was made to initiate NSAID therapy. Which

of the following patient characteristics is

the most compelling reason for avoiding

celecoxib in the treatment of her arthritis?

A. History of alcohol abuse

B. History of gout

C. History of myocardial infarction

D. History of osteoporosis

E. History of peptic ulcer disease

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D

The following are the effects of Opioids:

i. Miosis

ii. Diarrhea

iii. Sedation

iv. Nausea and Vomiting

A. I, II, III, IV

B. I, II, III

C. I, II, IV

D. I, III, IV

E. II, III, IV

61
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B

Which of the following agents for Gout

could decrease the level of Uric Acid?

i. Rasburicase iii. Colchicine

ii. Febuxostat

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. I, III

D. II, III

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C

14-month-old boy dies from an

accidental overdose of acetaminophen.

Which of the following is the most likely

cause of this patient's death?

A. Arrhythmia

B. Hemorrhagic stroke

C. Liver failure

D. Pulmonary Edema

E. Renal Insufficiency

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A

The following are the usual toxicityA

associated with Aspirin:

i. Nephritis

ii. Hypersensitivity

iii. Reye's Syndrome

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. I, III

D. II, III

64
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E

The following are drugs indicated for

Rheumatoid Arthritis, except:

A. Chloroquine

B. Abatacept

C. Tocilizumab

D. Leflunomide

E. None of the Above

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B

Which of the following agents falls under

Opioid Partial Agonist?

i. Codeine

ii. Buprenorphine

iii.Meperidine

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I and II only

E. II and III only

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C

A 27-year-old woman in her 42nd week of

gestation had been in labor for 10 hours.

Although her uterine contractions had

been strong and regular initially, they had

diminished in force during the past hour.

Which of the following agents would be

used to facilitate this woman's labor and

delivery?

A. Atosiban

B. Leuprolide

C. Oxytocin

D. Prolactin

E. Bromocriptine

67
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D

A 35-year-old man exhibited signs and

symptoms of acromegaly with large

pituitary tumor. Surgical treatment of

the tumor was only partially effective in

controlling his disease. At this point, which

of the following drugs is most likely to be

used as pharmacologic therapy?

A. Mecasermin

B. Desmopressin

C. Conivaptan

D. Octreotide

E. Ganirelix

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B

Which of the following statement/s is/are

correct?

i. T4 is more potent than T3

ii. Synthetic T4 is usually given to patients

with Hypothyroidism

iii. Graves' disease is an example of

autoimmune disease that results in

hypothyroidism.

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I and II only

E. I and III only

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C

The following are true related the

medication for Hyperthyroidism:

i. Propranolol inhibits the peripheral

conversion of T4 to T3

ii. Methimazole is preferred in pregnant

patients compared to Propylthiouracil.

iii. Radioactive Iodine should not be

used for patients who are pregnant or

nursing.

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. I, III

D. II, III

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B

Which of the following is an example of

Mineralocorticoid?

A. Prednisone

B. Fludrocortisone

C. Mifepristone

D. Spironolactone

E. Ketoconazole

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E

Which of the following glucocorticoids has

the highest rate of sodium retention?

A. Triamcinolone

B. Prednisone

C. Dexamethasone

D. Dexamethasone

E. Hydrocortisone

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E

A 50-year-old woman with a positive

mammogram undergoes lumpectomy and

a small carcinoma is removed. Biochemical

analysis of the cancer reveals the presence

of estrogen and progesterone receptors.

After this procedure, she will probably

receive which of the following drugs?

A. Clomiphene

B. Flutamide

C. Ethinyl Estradiol

D. Mifepristone

E. Tamoxifen

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A

Which of the following drugs is taken

during the first part of a meal for the

purpose of delaying the absorption of

dietary carbohydrates?

A. Acarbose

B. Exenatide

C. Glipizide

D. Pioglitazone

E. Sitagliptin

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A

The following agents are indicated for

Obesity:

i. Semaglutide

ii. Naltrexone-Bupropion

iii. Phentermine-Topiramate

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. I, III

D. II, III

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D

The following antidiabetic agents are

administered parenterally, except:

A. Semaglutide

B. Pramilinitide

C. NPH

D. Sitagliptin

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D

The following are true related insulin:

i. Activates G-protein receptor to produce

hypoglycemic effect.

ii. Increases the storage of glucose as

glycogen in liver.

iii. Increases Lipoprotein Lipase in adipose.

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. I, III

D. II, III

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D

A 55-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes

of 40 years' duration complains of severe

bloating and abdominal distress, especially

after meals. Evaluation is consistent with

diabetic gastroparesis. Which of the

following drug should be used in this

situation?

A. Alosetron

B. Cimetidine

C. Loperamide

D.Metoclopramide

E. Sucralfate

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B

The following statements are correct

related to Esomeprazole:

i. It is a s-isomer of Omeprazole.

ii. Formulated as an enteric coated tablet.

iii. Less effective than Ranitidine in treating

PUD.

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. I, III

D. II, III

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B

The following are the usual antimicrobials

indicated for peptic ulcer disease:

i. Amoxicillin

ii. Metronidazole

iii. Clindamycin

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. I, III

D. II, III

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A

Which of the following agents are

indicated as anti-emetics?

i. Prochlorperazine

ii. Diphenhydramine

iii. Dronabinol

iv. Aprepitant

A. I, II, III, IV

B. I, II, III

C. I, II, IV

D. I, III, IV

E. II, III, IV

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B

Which of the following agents is indicated

for formation of cholesterol gallstones?

A. Mesalamine

B. Ursodiol

C. Lubiprostone

D. Diphenoxylate

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D

A patient needs antibiotic treatment

for native valve, culturepositive infective

enterococcal endocarditis. His medical

history includes a severe anaphylactic

reaction to penicillin G during the last year.

The best approach would be treatment

with

A. Amoxicillin-clavulanate

B. Ceftriaxone

C. Ticarcillin

D. Gentamicin

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D

The following pairs of adverse effect and

antimicrobials is/are correct:

i. Chloramphenicol: Hemolytic Anemia

ii. Tetracycline: Enamel Dysplasia

iii.Erythromycin Estolate: Hepatitis

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. I, III

D. II, III

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D

The following statements are true about

gentamicin:

i. Has Bactericidal action

ii. Under the class of macrolides

iii. Generally, targets gram negative rods.

iv. Can cause nephrotoxicity

A. I, II, III, IV

B. I, II, III

C. I, II, IV

D. I, III, IV

E. II, III, IV

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D

The following agents acts by interfering

the folic acid synthesis, except:

A. Dapsone

B. Trimethoprim

C. Ciprofloxacin

D. Teicoplanin

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D

A 24-year-old male has returned to the

clinic for his 1-month check-up after

starting treatment for tuberculosis. He is

receiving isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide,

and ethambutol. He states he feels fine,

but now is having difficulty reading his

morning newspaper and feels he may

need to get glasses. Which of the following

drugs may be causing this problem?

A. Isoniazid

B. Rifampin

C. Pyrazinamide

D. Ethambutol

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B

Which of the following antifungal agents is

MOST likely to cause renal insufficiency?

A. Fluconazole

B. Amphotericin B

C. Terbinafine

D. Griseofulvin

E. Caspofungin

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A

The following pairs drugs and indications

are correct:

i. Acyclovir - HSV 2

ii. Foscarnet - CMV

iii.Entecavir - HBV

iv. Amantadine - Parkinson's Disease

A. I, II, III, IV

B. I, II, III

C. I, II, IV

D. I, III, IV

E. II, III, IV

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A

Which of the following anti-HIV

medications inhibits the enzyme

integrase?

A. Raltegravir

B. Maraviroc

C. Indinavir

D.Efavirenz

E. Zidovudine

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E

Metronidazole is used for the following

diseases, except:

A. Pseudomembranous colitis

B. Peptic Ulcer Disease

C. Trichomoniasis

D. Amebiasis

E. None of the Above

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A

The following are true related to Urinary

Antiseptics:

i. Elicits only local effect.

ii. Administered with alkalizing agent.

iii. Nifurtimox is an example of Urinary

Antiseptics

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I and II only

E. I and III only

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B

Which of the following agents targets

HER-2 receptor and is a treatment for

Breast CA?

A. Imatinib

B. Trastuzumab

C. Bevacizumab

D. Bortezomib

E. Methotrexate

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C

The following pair of agents and its side effects is/are correct:

i. Doxorubicin: Cardiac Problems

ii. Taxanes: Diarrhea

iii. Bleomycin: Pulmonary Problem

A. I, II, III

B. I, II

C. I, III

D. II, III

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B

Which of the following agents acts as an

immunosuppressant?

i. Prednisone

ii. Mycophenolate Mofetil

iii. Azathioprine

iv. Interferons

A. I, II, III, IV

B. I, II, III

C. I, II, IV

D. I, III, IV

E. II, III, IV

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A

Which compound enhances immune

function in vitro and is used to decrease

the symptoms of the common cold?

A. Echinacea

B. Ginkgo

C. Garlic

D.Melatonin

E. Milk thistle

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B

Which of the following agents can aid a

patient suffering from osteoarthritis?

A. Saw palmetto

B. Glucosamine

C. Coenzyme Q10

D. St. John's wort

E. Ephedra

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B

A 42-year-old man with a history of

alcoholism is brought to the emergency

department in a confused and delirious

state. He has truncal ataxia and

ophthalmoplegia. The most appropriate

immediate course of action is to

administer diazepam plus:

A. Chlordiazepoxide

B. Disulfiram

C. Folic acid

D. Glucosamine

E. Thiamine

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A

A 3-year-old healthy female ingested one

of her mother's 1 mg alprazolam tablets

45 minutes ago. The child was presented

to the emergency department with CNS

depression but a normal heart rate and

blood pressure. Her bedside glucose check

is also normal. Which of the following

antidotes might be helpful?

A. Flumazenil.

B. Naloxone.

C. Physostigmine

D. Atropine.

E. Fomepizole.

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A

A new drug is to be added in a formulary.

It was stated that the drug is to highly

protein bound and is generally excreted

through urine. Which type of data should

be sought for this type of information?

A. Pharmacokinetic data

B. Pharmacotherapeutic data

C. Pharmaceutics data

D. NOTA

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A

Which of the following pairs is incorrect

regarding Biopharmaceutics Classification

System?

A. BCS Class I: Griseofulvin

B. BCS Class IV: Bifonazole

C. BCS Class III: Cimetidine

D. BCS Class II: Glibenclamide