High Yield Questions

Multi-drug resistant, maltose oxidizer found in soil/water; Hospital acquired infection in immunocompromised

Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

what is Wilson’s disease and what is decreased in serum

body retains copper (liver, eyes, brain); copper excreted in urine and ceruloplasmin (copper carrier protein) is decreased

which antigen deteriorates in storage/over time

P antigen

why are mycoplasmas resistant to penicillin

they lack a cell wall

what is the shelf life and temp requirement for thawed FFP

24 hours at 1-6 Celsius

HAI causing pneumonia, UTIs, wound/surgical site infections; gram neg bacilli found in soil/water; opportunistic pathogen

pseudomonas aeruginosa

plasmodium species where no schizonts/merozoites are typically seen in blood smear

P falciparum

disease associated with stomatocytes

liver disease

autoimmune destruction of bile ducts inside liver (condition and lab findings)

primary biliary cirrhosis; ALP and GGP increased

condition associated with burr cells

uremia

what do acanthocytes typically indicate

inadequate slide drying? or liver disease

what antibodies usually only react at AHG

kell, duffy, kidd

what antibodies are clinically significant

ABO, Rh, Kell, Duffy, Kidd, SsU

what are the warm antibodies (body temp)

Rh, Kell, Duffy, Kidd

what are the cold antibodies

M, N, P, and I

which antibodies are enhanced by enzymes

Rh, Kidd, Lewis

which antibodies are destroyed by enzymes

Duffy, M, N, and S

which antibodies show dosage

Rh (other than D), Duffy, Kidd, MNS

which antibodies bind complement

Kidd, I and Lewis

what antibody is associated with PNH (paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria)

anti-P

what are the lab findings of Conn’s syndrome

increased aldosterone, increased sodium, decreased potassium, hypertension

what are the lab findings of cushings disease

increased cortisol, increased ACTH

what can cause falsely prolonged PT/PTT

underfilled tubes, EDTA/heparin contamination, testing delay, hemolysis, increased hematocrit

how does increased glucose related to sodium

decreases concentration of sodium due to water moving out or cells; sodium appears low

which fungi is the hair perforation test used on

T. mentagrophytes and T. rubrum

which yeast is associated with olive oil/lipid source to grow (fat loving yeast)

Malassezia furfur

arrange the lipoproteins in order from highest protein content to highest lipid content

HDL, LDL, VLDL,chylomicrons

what are lab findings of nephrotic syndrom

fatty casts and excess protein

what bacteria is associated with cold agglutination

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

what is the modified acid fast stain used for

Cryptosporidium

procainamide should be tested along side

NAPA

primidone should be tested along side

phenobarbital

what is indicated by increased calcium but normal PTH

metastasized cancer

what is the blood donation deferral for hep B vaccine

2 weeks

normochromic, normocytic anemia where bone marrow stops producing RBCs; WBC and platelets normal, reticulocytes very low

pure red cell aplasia

what is required for blood gas analyzer calibration

2 buffers and temperature controlled

what cell increase is associated with tuberculosis

monocytes

what is the Mcleod syndrome in blood bank

X linked genetic disorder causing weakened Kell antigens (XK gene); acanthocytes

cryoprecipitate shelf life and storage temp after thawing

kept at room temperature and used within 6 hours

what are compatibility requirements for plasma transfusions

must be ABO compatible, Rh does not matter

what are the fasting and glucose tolerance ranges for glucose impairment

fasting: 100-125; GT: 140-199

what bands are required by CDC for HIV on western blot

p24, gp41 or gp120/160

what is the second irreversible step of platelet aggregation

fibrin formation (clot)

how is p. aeruginosa differentiated from p. putida

p. aeruginosa grows at 42 C while p. putida does not

what is replaced if only PTT is failing QC

calcium chloride reagent

what is replaced if only PT is failing QC

thromboplastin reagent

what fungi has the key diagnostic feature “tuberculate macroconidia”

Histoplasma capsulatum

what causes cat scratch disease

bartonella henselae

what is the normal PT range

11-13.5 sec

what is the normal PTT range

25-35 sec

what is the preferred specimen for rotavirus

stool

what fungus is asexual and reproduces by budding yeast

Blastoconidium

what is the preferred specimen for Legionella

urine

what phase is rouleaux undetectable in blood bank

AHG

what is characterized by abnormally low EPO

polycythemia vera

what product is made if whole blood donation stops at 390 mL

packed red blood cells

blood donor deferral for hep B immunoglobulin recipient

3 months

what is measured in dyspnea caused by anasthesia

pseudocholinesterase

what factors are affected by coumadin

vitamin k dependent: II, VII, IX, and X; (and protein C and S)

what does 5 HIAA indicate in urine

carcinoid tumor

how is proteus vulgaris differentiated from proteus mirabilis

p vulgaris is indole positive; p mirabilis is indole negative

what causes whooping cough and what is the specimen of choice

Bordetella pertussis; nasopharyngeal swab

what is the timeframe for preparing platelet concentrate

within 8 hours after collection

what tests are best for syphilis reoccurrence

nontreponemal tests (RPR/VDRL)

what is associated with eosinophils in urine sediment

intestinal nephritis

what bacteria is associated with glomerulonephritis

strep pyogenes

how is rouleaux resolved in blood bank

saline replacement

how are promyelocytes and myelocytes differentiated

promyelocytes are larger, have nucleolus present and only primary granules

myelocytes are more condensed, no nucleolus and have both primary and secondary granules

what is the diagnostic hallmark of hodgkin lymphoma

reed sternberg cells (owls)

what are smudge cells associated with

CLL

what is associated with moth ball ingestion (napthalene poisoning) on blood smear

Heinz bodies

what is tested for pheochromocytoma

metanephrines

what is the metabolite of cocaine

benzoylecgonine

pleural effusion resulting from inflammation, with high protein, many cells, and cloudy/purulent

exudate

what is the formula for coefficient of variation

standard deviation/ mean

what is heparin manganese used for

separate HDL and LDL

how is Klebsiella pneumoniae differentiated from Klebsiella oxytoca

K. pneumoniae is indole negative; K. oxytoca is indole positive

what mycobacterium turns yellow when exposed to light

M. kansasii

what is indicated by a newborn with increased PT, PTT, TT and bleeding from cord

afibrinogenemia

what does s aureus ferment

mannitol

what is the purpose of protein C and S

act as natural anticoagulants

what regulates the Na/K pump

aldosterone; (aldosterone increases, sodium increases, potassium decreases)

long slender gram negative rods with tapered ends

fusobacterium

what is ferazolidone resistant

micrococcus

what is the formula for sensitivity

True positives/ TP+FN

what is the formula for specificity

True negatives/ TN+FP

how are viruses stored

lyophilized

what is the encapsulated yeast seen in diabetes meillitus

cryptococcus neoformans

what is fletcher’s media used for

Leptospira

what is loffler/tellurite/tinsdale media used for

corynebacterium diphtheriae

what parasite penetrates unbroken skin

Necator americanus

what kind of hemolysis does Strep bovis display

gamma hemolysis

what organ is affected by an increase in potassium

hearth

what is TCBS media used for

Vibrio spp

what enzyme is increased in mumps

amylase

what regulates blood pressure

aldosterone

what parasite causes autoinfection in immunocompromised

strongyloides stercoralis

what cells release heparin/histamine

basophils/mast cells

what is potassium permanganate

quenching agent in mycobacterium

what causes iatrophic anemia

excessive blood draws