Health Assessment: Head, Neck, Eyes, Ears, Mouth, Nose, and Throat Review

Comprehensive flashcards covering health assessment concepts for NURS 503, including the anatomy, health history, inspection, palpation, and normal vs. abnormal findings of the mouth, nose, throat, head, neck, ears, and eyes.

What are the three pairs of salivary glands located in the oral cavity?

Parotid, submandibular, and sublingual salivary glands.

What functions do the nasal turbinates perform as air passes through the nasal cavity?

They cleanse, moisten, and warm the air.

Which cranial nerve receptors are located in the nasal septum?

Cranial Nerve I (Olfactory nerve).

How do the paranasal sinuses differ in size and accessibility during physical assessment?

The frontal and maxillary sinuses are larger and accessible to assessment, whereas the ethmoidal and sphenoidal sinuses are smaller and deeper.

What structures are housed within the nasopharynx?

The pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids) and the openings of the eustachian tubes.

What are the primary risk factors associated with oral cancer?

Human papillomavirus (HPV), tobacco use, heavy alcohol use, and family history (though 25% of individuals who develop oral cancer have no known risk factors).

What are the clinical characteristics of leukoplakia, erythroplakia, and erythroleukoplakia?

Leukoplakia presents as white-gray chalky patches, erythroplakia presents as slightly raised or flat red patches, and erythroleukoplakia presents as mixed red and white patches.

How is acute sinusitis differentiated from chronic sinusitis based on duration?

Acute sinusitis lasts less than 4 weeks, whereas chronic sinusitis lasts greater than 12 weeks.

What is the clinical significance of thin clear nasal drainage (rhinorrhea) versus thick mucous drainage?

Thin clear drainage indicates chronic allergies, while mucous drainage indicates a cold or sinus infection.

What cranial nerve or neurological abnormalities are suspected when the uvula shows asymmetric movement or failure of the palate to rise?

Asymmetric movement indicates a stroke, while palate failure to rise with uvula deviation indicates Vagus nerve (CN X) paralysis.

What is the numerical grading scale used to evaluate tonsil size?

1+ is visible, 2+ is midway between tonsillar pillars and uvula, 3+ is touching the uvula, and 4+ is touching one another.

What physical assessment finding during sinus palpation suggests a large amount of exudate in the maxillary sinuses?

Crepitus felt on palpation.

What are typical mouth, nose, and throat changes observed in aging adults?

Decreased taste and smell, dental changes such as tooth loss and periodontal disease, and impaired dexterity affecting activities of daily living (ADLs).

What four major sutures join the bones of the skull?

Sagittal, coronal, squamosal, and lambdoid sutures.

What anatomical landmarks define the neck assessment area?

Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, cricoid cartilage, and thyroid cartilage.

Which condition is indicated when neck pain is accompanied by neck stiffness?

Meningeal inflammation.

What are the key clinical features and location of a tension headache?

Bilateral location across frontal, temporal, or occipital regions characterized by a bandlike tightness, viselike feeling, or diffuse dull ache.

What characteristics distinguish a cluster headache from other headache types?

Unilateral constant sharp, burning, or piercing pain located behind one eye or temple, occurring in clusters or periods of time and accompanied by agitation and restlessness.

What are the characteristics and categories of migraine headaches?

Recurrent throbbing or pulsating pain located vascularly, along the trigeminal nerve, behind eyes, or at the temple, accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and light sensitivity; categorized as migraine without aura, migraine with aura, and chronic migraine.

What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism, and what are its primary symptoms?

Hashimoto's disease (autoimmune disorder); symptoms include fatigue, hoarseness, weight gain, muscle weakness, numbness in hands, brain fog, depression, and anxiety.

What is the classic diagnostic triad of signs for suspected meningitis?

Nuchal rigidity (stiff neck), sudden high fever, and altered mental status.

What is Bell's palsy and what is its typical recovery timeframe?

An acute peripheral facial palsy causing unilateral facial paralysis, with recovery typically occurring within 6 months.

How is the thyroid gland palpated using the posterior approach?

Stand behind the patient, place thumbs on the nape of the neck with fingers on the sides of the trachea, use left fingers to push the trachea to the right, and deeply feel in front of the sternomastoid muscle with right fingers while the patient swallows (reverse technique for the left lobe).

What physical changes occur in the neck and thyroid gland of an aging adult?

Neck pain due to disease processes, decreased range of motion, prominent facial wrinkles, the thyroid gland sitting lower in the neck, and a more nodular or irregular thyroid texture.

What are the primary functions of the external, middle, and inner ear?

The external ear collects sound, the middle ear transmits sound, and the inner ear passes sound to the brain while maintaining equilibrium and body position.

What is the difference between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss?

Conductive hearing loss results from an impaired path of vibrations through the external and middle ear, whereas sensorineural hearing loss is caused by inner ear damage.

Which cranial nerve is evaluated during hearing assessments, and what tests are performed?

Cranial Nerve VIII (Vestibulocochlear nerve), tested using the whispered voice test, Weber test, and Rinne test.

How is the Weber test performed and what represents a normal result?

A vibrating tuning fork base is placed midline on top of the head; a normal finding is sound quality heard equally bilaterally in both ears.

How does the technique for otoscopic examination differ between a child under 3 years old and an individual over 4 years old?

For children less than 3 years of age, pull the pinna down and back (due to a shorter, wider, and more horizontal canal); for individuals greater than 4 years of age, pull the pinna up and back.

What are the clinical definitions of microtia, macrotia, and tophi?

Microtia is an underdeveloped pinna, macrotia is an abnormally large ear greater than 10 cm, and tophi are uric acid crystal deposits on the ear.

What do tenderness behind the ear and tenderness over the mastoid process indicate during ear palpation?

Tenderness behind the ear indicates otitis media, while tenderness over the mastoid process indicates mastoiditis.

What age-related hearing condition is common in aging adults?

Presbycusis.

What is the palpebral fissure?

The elliptical open space between the eyelids.

Which cranial nerves innervate the six extraocular muscles controlling eye movement?

Abducens nerve (CN VI) innervates the lateral rectus muscle, Trochlear nerve (CN IV) innervates the superior oblique muscle, and Oculomotor nerve (CN III) innervates the remaining four extraocular muscles.

What are the three concentric layers of the internal eye structure?

Outer layer (sclera and cornea), middle layer (choroid, ciliary body, iris, pupil, and lens), and inner layer (retina and optic disc).

What vision impairments are defined by myopia and presbyopia?

Myopia is impaired far vision, whereas presbyopia is impaired near vision resulting from age-related loss of accommodation.

What is the recommended frequency for routine eye examinations in adults aged 18–64 versus adults aged 65 and older?

Every two years for ages 18–64 without risk factors, and annually for adults aged 65 and older.

What clinical conditions are associated with halos around lights, night blindness, and diplopia?

Halos around lights indicate glaucoma, night blindness indicates optic atrophy or Vitamin A deficiency, and diplopia indicates dry eyes, misalignment, or injury.

How is the corneal light reflex test conducted and what constitutes a normal finding?

Hold a penlight 12 inches away and shine light toward the bridge of the nose while the patient stares straight ahead; normal finding is parallel alignment with light reflected in the exact same spot on each cornea.

What are the terms for inward, outward, upward, and downward misalignment of the eyes detected by the corneal light reflex?

Esotropia (inward), Exotropia (outward), Hypertropia (upward), and Hypotropia (downward).

What intraocular pressure range is considered normal, and what condition results from elevated pressure due to blocked aqueous humour drainage?

Normal eye pressure is 10–21 mmHg; elevated pressure due to fluid build-up causes glaucoma.

How do the dry (atrophic) and wet (exudative) forms of Age-Related Macular Degeneration (AMD) differ?

Dry AMD involves protein deposits forming under the macula, whereas wet AMD involves abnormal blood vessels developing under the retina and macula that leak fluid.

What are the clinical definitions of ptosis, ectropion, entropion, and chalazion?

Ptosis is a drooping upper eyelid, ectropion is an outwardly turned lower eyelid, entropion is an inwardly turned lower eyelid, and chalazion is an infected meibomian gland.

What is arcus senilis?

A lipid accumulation forming a gray-white ring around the cornea, commonly seen in aging adults.

What is exophthalmos (proptosis) and what are its common risk factors?

Bulging of the eyes, commonly caused by hyperthyroidism, eye socket infections, eye injury, or tumors.