D2 content

Which of the following referral alerts would be suggestive of a cardiovascular issue.

chest pain; shortness of breath; Unexplained swelling in arms and legs

A patient is able to extend the leg (knee extension) against gravity but cannot overcome any other resistance. The grade for this manual muscle test is

Fair 3/5

Which of the following would have an insidious onset?

Achilles tendinopathy

Which of the following may be areas the patient and clinician must work together to understand and communicate effectively?

Religious considerations; Family considerations; Language barriers; Cultural differences

Patient rated outcome measure — Match the definition with the term

Provides a standardized means to quantify a patients impairments that tailors an intervention specific to a patient.

Clinician rated outcomes measure — Match the definition with the term

Quantifies the extent of a patients ROM, function.

ICF model — Match the definition with the term

Allows the patient to be seen as a person rather than a disability.

All of the following are considered a part of the inspection aspect of the evaluation process except

point tenderness

Which of the following components of the exam is the most informative?

history

The medical record does not allow for which of the following?

Giving the treatment protocol for the patient

The _________ provides a broad framework for the examination process.

ICF

This section of the ICF should contain history, pain questionnaires, examination notes, stability test results

Body structure and functions

Triage — Match the term with the definition

Process of determining the priority of treatment

Sign — Match the term with the definition

A condition that is visually apparent to the examiner (vomiting)

Symptom — Match the term with the definition

A condition not usually visually apparent to the examiner (nausea)

Proximal — Match the term with the definition

Toward the midline of the body

Distal — Match the term with the definition

Away from the midline of the body

Effusion — Match the term with the definition

Collection of fluid within a joint space

Edema — Match the term with the definition

Collection of fluid in the intercellular space

Bradycardia — Match the term with the definition

Slow heart rate

Tachycardia — Match the term with the definition

High heart rate

When determining a treatment and rehabilitation program, which evaluation should be used as a baseline?

Initial evaluation

For every minute that defibrillation is delayed, the chance of surviving sudden cardiac arrest reduces by what percentage?

10%

What type of consent is needed before evaluating an injury?

Informed consent

Which of the following should be included in the emergency action planning?

Personnel, equipment, lines of communication

Active range of motion (AROM) should be completed unless which of the following is present?

fracture

Ideally, how many responders should begin the evaluation process

2

In order to perform manual muscle testing (MMT), which of the following has to occur?

Active range of motion (AROM)

After splinting an injury, the athlete complains that the pain is getting worse. Which of the following might give you information regarding the injury?

Capillary refill distal to the injury site

Football face mask removal is easiest when using

cordless screwdriver

Joint motion that is stopped by involuntary or voluntary muscle contraction describes what pathological end-feel?

spasm

When a spinal nerve root innervates a discrete area of skin. (The examiner can go off feel or touch to determine this)

Dermatome

This maneuver is called____________________

Jendrassik

The American Heart Association deems a patient to have elevated systolic pressure is above__________. Incorrect answer: (no answer) Correct Answer: 120-129

120-129

Which nerve root level is being tested in this picture.

C7

What is being tested in this picture.

Capillary refill

Which nerve level would test this myotome.

L 1/2

Which nerve root would test this myotome.

L 4

Shaking the victim or using "smelling salts" to arouse an unconscious athlete should not be done for which of the following reasons?

The cervical spine may be compromised.

As you stand on the sideline of a football game, you see a player go down on the field while holding his knee. Place the following steps in order for the evaluation process?

Seeing the mechanism of injury → Observing position of the body → Getting a history once you arrive at the player's side → Palpating the injury → Determine transportation needs (walk off, carry, stretcher)

What is the term for the temporary cessation of breathing?

apnea

After colliding with another player, a soccer player is unconscious on the field when you arrive. What would be your main concern?

Stabilizing the cervical spine

During what part of the on-field examination is the examiner able to gain an immediate impression of the integrity of the capsule and ligaments involved in the injury before muscle guarding or swelling masks the degree of instability?

joint stability tests

Before you perform manual muscle testing (MMT) on an athlete's knee, which of the following should occur first?

The athlete should be able to perform active ROM (AROM).

What motor testing is associated with the C4 nerve root level?

shoulder shrug

A patient who can move his or her body part through a full ROM in a gravity-eliminated position would be given what MMT grade?

2/5 poor

In normal healthy tissue, which of the following is true?

Active range of motion is less than passive range of motion.

Athletes may not want to compete or practice. They may exaggerate or fake their signs and/or symptoms. This is known as

malingering

Protective equipment that increases the size of the goalkeeper is not allowed — Match the rule with the sport. You must choose wisely. Some sports have the same rules but these were specific for the sports identified.

Field Hockey

Time-limited medical and bleeding timeouts may be used to treat the athlete — Match the rule with the sport. You must choose wisely. Some sports have the same rules but these were specific for the sports identified.

Tennis

No equipment that would endanger others, such as that made of metal, is allowed. Hard equipment must be covered with thick foam padding; functional/preventive knee braces must be covered or worn under clothing. — Match the rule with the sport. You must choose wisely. Some sports have the same rules but these were specific for the sports identified.

Football

Bleeding timeouts do not count as an injury timeout, but the number of timeouts and the length of time allowed to treat the wound are left to the official's discretion — Match the rule with the sport. You must choose wisely. Some sports have the same rules but these were specific for the sports identified.

Wrestling

ATs or other staff may not enter the field unless instructed by an official. — Match the rule with the sport. You must choose wisely. Some sports have the same rules but these were specific for the sports identified.

Soccer

An injured player must temporarily leave the contest if the AT or other staff member comes onto the court requiring a stoppage in play — Match the rule with the sport. You must choose wisely. Some sports have the same rules but these were specific for the sports identified.

Basketball

Hard casts must be properly padded. Players are permitted to wear only one elbow pad that does not exceed 10 inches in length — Match the rule with the sport. You must choose wisely. Some sports have the same rules but these were specific for the sports identified.

Baseball

Which of the following sports requires that the athletic trainer be summoned onto the field/court/mat before entering?

Soccer

The return-to-activity decision should be based on all of the following except the

athletes gender

When performing an immediate on-field examination, which of the following should be evaluated first?

obstructed airway

Which of the following is considered the most important test to be performed while the athlete is still on the field?

AROM

Biots breaths — Match the type of response (cardiac or pulmonary) to the correct term.

Breathing that involves a group of regular breaths followed by irregular patterns of apnea.

Cheyne Stokes breaths — Match the type of response (cardiac or pulmonary) to the correct term.

Periods of apnea followed by breaths of increasing depth. Occurs most commonly during sleeping

Apneuristic breaths — Match the type of response (cardiac or pulmonary) to the correct term.

Prolonged inspirations unreleived by attempts to exhale

Accelerated HR — Match the type of response (cardiac or pulmonary) to the correct term.

Pulse above 150 beats per minute.

Low Tension — Match the type of response (cardiac or pulmonary) to the correct term.

Short, fast, faint pulse that rabidly declines

Deficit — Match the type of response (cardiac or pulmonary) to the correct term.

The number of heart beats is less in the radial pulse than over the heart

As part of a physical examination, you need to assess strength of the lower extremity muscles. Select the photo that best illustrates the correct technique for assessing strength of the hid adductor muscle group.

Photo 1

Weakness of which of the following muscles causes scapular winging?

serratus anterior

A Bankart lesion can be formed by which ligament pulling off with a portion of the labrum?

Inferior GH ligament

Which represents the starting position for the empty can test?

GH abducted 90° in the scapular plane with the humerus internally rotated

Injury or trauma to what nerve roots may be indicated by atrophy of the deltoid muscle group?

C5 and C6

What is the only member of the rotator cuff group that internally rotates the humerus?

subscapularis

Which position would place the GH joint in its closed-packed position?

90° abduction with external rotation

The upper extremity's only attachment to the axial skeleton occurs at which of the following?

sternoclavicular joint

Which of the following is a radial fracture that displaces palmarly?

smiths fracture

What is a fracture of the base of the first metacarpal that extends into the articular surface called?

bennetts fracture

Which of the carpal bones "floats" on the triquetrum?

pisiform

Which of the following is a rupture of the central extensor tendon that causes the lateral bands to slip palmarly on each side of the PIP, changing its line of pull on this joint from an extensor to a flexor?

Boutonnière deformity

Which carpal bone is palpable as the floor of the anatomical snuffbox?

scaphoid

Which wrist pathology is commonly associated with clicking on the ulnar side of the wrist?

Triangular fibrocartilage tear

Which nerve travels through the tunnel of Guyon?

ulnar

What is the primary extensor of the lateral four fingers' interphalangeal (IP) joints and assists in wrist extension?

Extensor Digitorum

What is the angle formed by the long axis of the humerus and ulna known as?

carrying angle

Which nerve enters the elbow at the arcade of Struthers?

ulnar

What is the bundle of the UCL that is the primary restraint against a valgus force when the elbow is flexed beyond 60°?

posterior

The radioulnar joints are classified as what type of joint?

syndesmotic

What forms the lateral humeral articulating surface on the distal border of the lateral epicondyle?

capitellum

What is the Y-shaped ligament of the hip that originates from the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS)?

Iliofemoral

Which of the following describes the position of the lower leg following a posterior hip dislocation?

Adduction and internal rotation

What position should be used when wanting to manual muscle test the gluteus maximus but not the hamstrings?

knee and hip extension

Which of the following bony landmarks are located on the calcaneus?

Sustentaculum tali, peroneal tubercle, lateral cuboid articulation

Typically, where is pain centralized when someone has plantar fasciitis?

Medial calcaneal tubercle

An athlete with repeated herpes simplex eruptions should be counseled to avoid which of the following potential outbreak triggers?

Fatigue, psychological stress, and sunlight exposure

Which of the following groups of muscles insert into the medial aspect of the tibia just distal to the medial condyle?

Sartorius, gracilis, semitendinosus

Following trauma, what is the initial response at the vascular level?

Transient vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation

You are providing medical coverage for a Little league baseball tournament when a mother escorts her 10 year old son to the medical tent. She states that he cannot seem to get his asthma under control. If the child's asthma is not under control, what should you expect to hear when you auscultate his lungs?

Wheezing

A diver reports to the athletic training room complaining of right shoulder pain during overhead weight training activities. During the assessment of the athletes shoulder, you conduct the special test shown below and determine the test result is positive because the athlete reports pain with motion, especially near the end range of motion. What does a positive test imply?

Pathology is present in the rotator cuff group, especially the supraspinatus, or the long head of the biceps brachii tendon.

A 13 year old adolescent athlete presents for evaluation of pain, stiffness, and swelling in multiple joints that have ben present in varying degrees of intensity for more than 6 months without any mechanism of injury. Joint stability tests are within normal limits. Which of the following conditions would be in your differential diagnosis?

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A high school freshman athlete presents with polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia, along with a recent loss in body weight. What condition do you suspect, and what tests can your physician order to assist in confirming your initial impression?

Type 1 diabetes mellitus; fasting blood glucose levels

The ________ muscle has an insertion on the coracoid process and an origin on the ribs?

pectoralis minor

Which of the following is considered the highest level of evidence?

Meta-analysis