Vet Path exam 6 (59-66)

vesicular stomatitides

What is the virus-induced epithelial cytolysis manifested as fluid accumulation and subsequent rupture in the oral cavity?

feline stomatitis

What has been reported to be associated with feline calicivirus and felid herpesvirus 1?

feline calicivirus oral lesions

What is primarily a respiratory infection in cats, occurring mainly to the rostrodorsal and lateral surfaces of the tongue and each side of midline of the hard palate?

feline ulcerative stomatitis and glossitis

What is an ulcerative and chronic inflammatory condition of the mucosa of the arches of the pharynx, the angle of the jaws, the hard palate, gingiva, and tongue most commonly in older cats that may also accompany periodontitis?

feline lymphoplasmacytic stomatitis

What is an idiopathic condition characterized by red inflamed gums, fetid breath, inappetence, and oral mucosa hyperplastic and ulcerated that needs to be diagnosed via IHC?

feline plasma cell gingivitis- pharyngitis

What is characterized by raised erythematous, proliferative lesions, mainly in the glossopalatine arches, extending caudally to the palatopharyngeal arch and rostrally to the gingiva and may also have elevated polyclonal serum gamma-globulin levels?

eosinophilic ulcer

eosinophilic plaque

eosinophilic granuloma

What are the three lesions associated with the eosinophilic granuloma complex in cats?

eosinophilic ulcer

What is a chronic, superficial ulcerative lesion of the mucocutaneous junctions of the lips, oral mucosa, and skin that occurs in cats of all ages, and appear as well-demarcated, red-brown, shallow ulcers, with elevated margins usually on the upper lip bilaterally, and in areas of frequent licking?

ulcerative stomatitis

What is caused by uremia associated with chronic renal disease or diabetes mellitus that is most common in dogs?

fibrous hyperplasia

What is common in dogs and can be generalized and diffuse, focal and discrete, or localized to one of more teeth?

focal to locally extensive gingivitis

What is the local enlargement of gingiva promoted by chronic, painless inflammation that may be associated with periodontal disease?

squamous cell carcinoma

What type of tonsillar neoplasm is usually unilateral and multinodular and associated with inflammation?

lymphoma

What type of tonsillar neoplasm is bilaterally enlarged, soft, pale tan/white with the mass usually being more clinically obvious before sequelae?

squamous cell carcinoma

What is the most common oral malignancy in cats that are flat, nodular, and ulcerated, most frequently located on the ventral surface of the tongue, on the midline near the frenulum?

gums and hard palate

Where are oral squamous cell carcinomas found in horses?

oral melanoma

What is composed of neoplastic melanocytes with 90% being malignant in dogs, and some contain no pigment while the majority are visibly black?

oral melanoma

What has rapid growth with necrosis, ulceration ,and invasion of bone with more than 70% metastasizing to regional lymph nodes, and there is a 2 month median survival time for untreated dogs?

oral fibrosarcoma

What is the second most common oral malignant tumor in cats and the third most common oral malignant tumor in dogs with most frequently appearing in younger dogs and golden retrievers?

oral papilloma

What is a virus-induced, transmissible condition occurring in young animals with the lesion regressing spontaneously and may appear papilliform or cauliflower-like?

extra medullary plasmacytoma

What can occur anywhere in the mucous membranes of the oral cavity, esophagus, or intestine, are slow-growing neoplasms and have not been reported to metastasize?

pharyngeal diverticulum

Where is the most common place for plant material and awns to lodge in pigs?

enamel hypoplasia

What occurs before eruption of the permanent teeth secondary to hyperthermia and viral infection most often associated with canine distemper virus in dogs?

congenital porphyria

What is the defect in red blood cell production that may result in incoordination of porphyrins into dentin, causing pink discoloration to the teeth?

salivary calculi (sialoliths)

Which salivary gland condition can cause obstruction and inflammation, is most common in horses, and the most common location is the parotid duct?

microliths

What are formed routinely and undergo regular turnover but they may accumulate and cause an obstruction, and in horses they are usually single, hard, white, laminated structures composed of calcium carbonate?

ranula

That is a smooth, rounded, fluctuant cystic distention of the duct in the floor of the mouth which may contain serous fluid or thick tenacious mucus?

salivary mucocele

What is the accumulation of salivary secretions in single or multilobulated cavities not lined by secretary epithelium and present in the soft tissues of the mouth or neck?

sialoadenitis

What is the term for the inflammation of the salivary glands?

unilateral carcinomas located in parotid or mandibular glands

What are the most common neoplasms of the salivary gland?

pyogranulomatous glossitis

What is caused by actinobacillus lingieresii caused by damaged lingual tissue, most common in cattle, and there is inflammation and fibrosis that causes firmness and enlargement of the tongue?

nutritional fat necrosis

What is caused by a diet very high in lipids and low in vitamin E, leading to damaged and necrotic adipose tissue with a white, chalky appearance and gritty texture most common in cats?

pancreatic fat necrosis

What is caused by pancreatic enzyme (lipase) release during pancreatitis where lipase converts triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol?

thrush

What is caused by candida spp. forms thick, plaque-like lesions on the mucosal surface that is tan to yellow and friable, and often seen in avian species?

viral diseases

What is esophagitis most often associated with?

esophageal impaction "Choke"

What is the most common example of intrinsic obstruction in horses where a mass of grain or fibrous ingests gets lodged in the lumen of the esophagus?

lymphoma

squamous cell carcinoma

What are the primary neoplasms that occur in the tonsils?

ulcer

What is a defect resulting in loss of the mucosal surface down to or through the basement membrane?

acute ulcer

Which type of ulcer is red to pink and margins are on the same plane as adjacent normal?

chronic ulcer

Which type of ulcer is tan to muted red, has raised margins, a depressed center, and firm on palpation?

upper GI tract

If there is dark black/red feces from a cat or dog, which location is most likely for an ulcer?

lower intestinal tract

If there is bright red blood in feces of a dog or cat, which location is most likely for an ulcer?

heavy grain feeding (lactic acidosis)

Which is a common cause for abomasal ulcers in diary cattle?

omentum

What part of the ruminant stomach is highly efficient at sealing perforating abomasal ulcers so cattle can live a long time without showing signs?

NSAID use

What most commonly causes gastric ulcers in horses?

penned pigs fed finely ground grain

Which pigs most commonly get gastric ulcers?

gastric dilation and volvulus

What is a life-threatening condition characterized by dilation and rotation of the stomach, commonly in large, deep-chested dogs and is recognized by dorsal splenic displacement and a twisted esophagus?

traumatic reticuloperitonitis

What is the perforation of the forestoamchs by foreign bodies usually in the cranioventral direction and is followed immediately by acute local peritonitis?

urea and sulfur toxicosis

What is the accidental consumption of excessive quantities of urea that results in the production of ammonia in the rumen, leading to rumen contents to smell ammoniacal when opened and the content is normally alkaline?

rumenitis and acidosis caused by carbohydrate overload

What is seen on necropsy as sunken eyes, blood thick and dark, general venous congestion, intestinal contents tend to be watery, and fucobacterium necrophorum may cause abscesses in the liver?

primary bloat (frothy bloat)

What occurs up to 3 days after an animal begins a new diet, foam is mixed with rumen contents and physically blocks the cardia, preventing eructation and causing the rumen to distend with gases of fermentation, and can be diagnosed by the bloat line on necrosis?

secondary bloat

What is caused by a physical or functional obstruction or stenosis of the esophagus leading to the failure to eructate?

abomasal dilation and tympany

What is the syndrome of young cattle that occurs most commonly in dairy breeds where there is abomasum fermentation of high-energy ingesta by gas-producing bacteria?

temporary villous atrophy

What results from viruses and intracellular bacteria and parasites causing enterocyte destruction?

young animals, especially pigs and calves

What animals are at highest risk for Escherichia coli diseases?

enterotoxin colibacillosis

What occurs most often in animals 2 days to 3 weeks of age with calves and piglets most often affected, bacterial toxin induces sodium and chloride secretion into the intestinal lumen and clinical signs include dehydration, sunken eyes, and tucked-up abdomen?

septicemic colibacillosis

What is the disease of newborn calves, lambs, and occasionally foals that have not received sufficient colostrum to develop immunity with fibrinous arthritis, ophthalmitis, serositis, meningitis, and renal cortical abscess?

edema disease in pigs

What disease is specific in pigs 6-14 weeks old and associated with dietary changes at weaning with the best pigs in a group are the ones affected, and death is due to an endotoxic shock-like syndrome?

Salmonellosis

What occurs when inflammatory cells up regulate prostaglandin E2, which results in hyper secretion of chloride leading to secretory and malabsorptive diarrhea?

peracute salmonellosis

What is the disease of young calves, foals and pigs with the serovar most often being S. choleraesuis with gross lesions being minimal and secondary to fibrinoid necrosis but there can be blue discoloration of white pigs?

acute salmonellosis

What occurs in cattle, pigs, and horses, the serovar is most often S. typhimurium, there is diffuse catarrhal enteritis with fibrinonecrotic ilieotyphlocolitis, and feces often have a distinctive "septic tank" odor?

acute salmonellosis

What has the mechanism of diarrhea being secretory diarrhea through interference with chloride channels?

fibrinous cholecystitis

What is pathognomonic for acute enteric salmonellosis in calves caused specifically by Salmonella enterica serovar Dublin?

chronic salmonellosis

What occurs in pigs, cattle, and horses where in pigs there are discrete raised, circular foci of necrosis and ulcerations that are termed button ulcers and can develop rectal strictures?

clostridial enteritis

What targets the small intestine with serosal and mucosal petechiae, ecchymoses, and paintbrush or diffuse hemorrhage with death being rapid?

Clostridium perfringens Type A

What is the most frequently occurring clostridium in mammals and bird species that have hemorrhagic to necrohemorrhagic enteritis?

clostridium piliforme

What has the principal target of the liver with mucosal necrosis and edema extending into the muscularis?

clostridium difficile

What causes pseudomembranous colitis, hemorrhagic necroitizing enterocolitis, necrotizing typhlocolitis, and enteritis in many different species?

Hemorrhagic fibrnonecroitc duodenitis and proximal jejunitis

What occurs in horses older than 9 years old, has hemorrhagic and fibrinonecrotic enteritis, and histologically submucosal edema and neutrophilic infiltrate of the submucosa and laminate propria?

peracute hemorrhagic gastroenteritis of dogs

What occurs most often in toy and mini breed dogs less than 2 years old with blood observed at the anus before death and hemorrhagic necrosis of the GI mucosa anywhere from the stomach caudally?

Lawsonia spp

What causes proliferative segmental enteropathy in a variety of species with diarrhea 5-15 days duration, proliferation of cryptal enterocytes, proliferative enteropathy, enteritis in dogs, and crypt cell hyperplasia on histology?

Lawsonia intracellularis in pigs

What occurs in pigs 6-16 weeks of age in suboptimal to-poor body condition, with normal-to-dull demeanor, proliferative enteritis is a classic manifestation ,and it is typically localized in the terminal ileum and extends distally to the colon and cecum or proximally to the distal jejunum?

lawsonia intracelluaris in horses

What is a disease of foals less than 1 year of age affecting weanling foals and young adults characterized by fever, lethargy, peripheral edema, diarrhea, colic, and weight loss, and the most common clinical lab findings include hypoproteinemia and hypoalbuminemia?

rhodococcus equi

What is an intestinal infection that begins in the Peyer's patches which become necrotic, ulcerate, then become replaced by granulomatous inflammation and abscesses with foals typically presenting with pneumonia first?

mycobacterium avian subspecies. paratuberculosis

What occurs in cattle with severe, watery diarrhea, emaciation ,and hypoproteinemia in animals older than 19 months with weight loss despite good appetite?

mycobacterium avian subspecies. paratuberculosis

What is grossly identified as severe segmental thickening of the ileum, cecum, and proximal colon resulting in a corrugated appearance?

inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

What can be diagnosed histologically by lymphoplasmacytic and eosinophilic enteritis?

Group A Rotavirus enteritis

What virus is ubiquitous and cytolytic with ages corresponding to the reduction of colostral and milk-associated anti-rotavirus antibody titers that occur after weaning with calves affected first week of life and piglets affected within the first 7 weeks of life?

group A rotavirus enteritis

What has an oral route of infection with the target cells being villous enterocytes causing villous atrophy and yellow, watery diarrhea is present?

coronavirus enteritis

What is generally a mild disease of neonates that is self-limiting and causes enterocolitis with the lesions consisting of degeneration and loss of enterocytes from jejunal villous tips?

Feline infectious peritonitis (FIP)

What is a uniformly fatal disease of cats caused by a mutated coronavirus affecting young cats with macrophages being infected and then carrying the virus systemically?

Wet form of FIP

What has gross lesions of fibrinous polyserositis with effusion?

dry form of FIP

What has gross lesions of vasculitis and granulomas with no effusive processes?

Feline infectious peritonitis

What affects young cats with vasocentric deposition of immune complexes that results in pyogranulomas?

equine coronaviral enterocolitis

What is an enteric pathogen that causes fever, lethargy, colic, and diarrhea in adult horses with infection in adult horses causing an acute necrotizing, neutrophilic inflammation in the small intestine?

transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE)

What is an important disease in pigs younger than 10 days old that suffer from acute diarrhea, weight loss, vomiting, and dehydration with the perineum stained with watery, yellow, fecal material and sows are susceptible to the virus?

canine parvoviral enteritis

What is a severely fatal disease in dogs caused by CPV where the virus targets rapidly divining cells (crypt cells) and the gross lesions include dilated hemorrhagic small intestine with serositis and histology shows epithelial cell crypt necrosis?

Bovine viral diarrhea (BVD)

What type of virus that affects cows and has an incubation of 3-5 days where the disease is acute with bloody diarrhea and a high fever, oral and mucosal ulcers are a common gross lesion, and pregnant cows exposed at 60-120 days gestation may lose the fetus or deliver a persistently infected (PI) calf?

mucosal disease

Which form of BVD can occur in a PI calf?

megacolon

What is a larger than normal, feces-filled colon with the congenital form caused by the developmental lack of myenteric plexuses, and in cats it is commonly idiopathic with Manx cats mostly affected?

typhlocolitis in dogs

What is the inflammation of the large bowel usually associated with frequent diarrhea and can be mucoid or bloody with the most common form in dogs being idiopathic mucosal colitis?

Histiocytic ulcerative colitis

What commonly occurs in Boxers and French bulldogs younger than 2 years of age with soft feces but no diarrhea or weight loss, raised erosive to ulcerative nodules, and lymphadenomegaly?

megacolon secondary to lethal white foal syndrome

What disease is associated with overo pattern of spotting in foals that are white and appear normal at birth, but they do not pass meconium so they develop colic and die usually by 72 hours after birth?

clostridial enteritis in horses

What is severe diarrhea in horses that is generally nonhemorrhagic and rapidly fatal with lesions limited to the mucosa of the cecum and colon and there can be evidence of endotoxic shock present?

Left dorsal displacement

What can result in a horse from the renosplenic entrapment of the large colon?

right dorsal displacement

What can result in a horse when the pelvic flexure gets positioned cranial near the diaphragm?

left colon volvulus

What can result in a horse from a torsion of the large colon that grossly results in ischemia that leads to necrosis and is most frequent in mares?

enteroliths

What are common in horses and camelids that form by ammonium magnesium phosphate that collects around a small central nidus, vary greatly in size, and diets high in magnesium and phosphorus can predispose them?

pelvic flexure and transverse colon

Where do enteroliths commonly get stuck in equids?

rectal prolapse

What occurs in multiple species when the rectal support mechanism is either overcome by pressure or is weakened, and pressure may be due to either excessive straining or physical pressure?

swine dysentery

What is caused by Brachyspira hyodysenteriae in grower and finisher pigs that produces a cytotoxic hemolysin and the bacteria survives stomach acid following ingestion to eventually reach the large intestine where it colonizes and produces disease?