INFANTRY BOARD STUDY GUIDE

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11 Terms

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Battle Drills

What is a battle drill?

A collective action rabidly executed without applying a deliberate decision making process

Q2. What is Battle Drill 1?

A: React to Contact

Q3. What is Battle Drill 1A?

A: React to contact Squad

Q4. What is Battle Drill 2?

A: Conduct a Assault

Q5. What is Battle Drill 2A?

A: Conduct a assault Squad

Q6. What is Battle Drill 3?

A: Break Contact

Q7. What is Battle Drill 3A?

A: Break Contact (Squad)

Q8. What is Battle Drill 4?

A: React to Ambush (Platoon).

Q9. What is Battle Drill 4A?

A: React to Ambush (Squad).

Q10. What is Battle Drill 5?

A: Knock Out a Bunker.

Q11. What is Battle Drill 6?

A: Enter and Clear a Room.

Q12. What is Battle Drill 7?

A: Enter a Trench to Secure a Foothold.

Q13. What is Battle Drill 8?

A: Breach a Mined Wire Obstacle.

Q14. What is Battle Drill 9?

A: React to Indirect Fire.

Q14. What is battle drill 9A ?

A: react to Indirect Fire squad

Q15. What is Battle Drill 10?

A: React to Aircraft.

Q15. What is Battle Drill 11

A: Establish security at the halt

Q15. What is Battle Drill 12

A: Conduct a hasty Attack

What is Battle Drill 13

A: Dismount a vehicle under direct Fire

What is Battle Drill 14

A: React to Nuclear attack

What is Battle Drill 15

A: react to chemical agent attack

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LAND NAVIGATION

What are the five major terrain features?

A: Hill, Valley, Ridge, Saddle, and Depression.

Q3. What are the three minor terrain features?

A: Draw, Spur, and Cliff.

Q4. What are the two supplementary terrain features?

A: Cut and Fill.

Q5. What are the three types of north?

A: True North, Magnetic North, and Grid North.

Q6. What are the five basic map colors?

A: Black, Blue, Green, Brown, and Red.

Q7. What does the color blue represent on a map?

A: Water.

Q8. What does the color brown represent?

A: Elevation and contour lines.

Q9. What does the color green represent?

A: Vegetation.

Q10. What does a six-digit grid coordinate identify?

A: A location within 100 meters.

Q11. What does an eight-digit grid coordinate identify?

A: A location within 10 meters.

Q12. How do you read a grid coordinate?

A: Right, then up.

Q13. What is an azimuth?

A: A horizontal direction measured in degrees from north.

Q14. What is a back azimuth?

A: The opposite direction of an azimuth, 180 degrees apart.

Q15. What are the three types of contour lines?

A: Index, Intermediate, and Supplementary.

What is a map?

A: A map is a graphic representation of a portion of the Earth’s surface, drawn to scale, as seen from above.

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METL (Mission Essential Task List)

Q1. What does METL stand for?

A: Mission Essential Task List.

Q2. What is the purpose of a METL?

A: To identify the key tasks a unit must train on to accomplish its mission.

Q3. Who is responsible for prioritizing mission-essential tasks?

A: The unit commander.

Q4. What are the two types of METL?

A: HQDA Standard METL and Assigned Mission METL.

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PACE PLAN

Q1. What does PACE stand for?

A: Primary, Alternate, Contingency, Emergency.

Q2. What is the purpose of a PACE plan?

A: To maintain communication if the primary method fails.

Q3. What does Primary mean?

A: The main method of communication.

Q4. What does Alternate mean?

A: The second method if the primary fails.

Q5. What does Contingency mean?

A: The backup method if the first two fail.

Q6. What does Emergency mean?

A: The last method available to communicate.

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AVPU

Q1. What does AVPU stand for?

A: Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive.

Q2. What is AVPU used for?

A: To check a casualty's level of consciousness.

Q3. What does Alert mean?

A: The casualty is awake and responsive.

Q4. What does Verbal mean?

A: The casualty responds to verbal commands.

Q5. What does Pain mean?

A: The casualty responds only to a pain stimulus.

Q6. What does Unresponsive mean?

A: The casualty does not respond to voice or pain.

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Five Principles of Patrolling

Q1. What are the five principles of patrolling?

A: Planning, Reconnaissance, Security, Control, and Common Sense.

Q2. What is Planning?

A: Preparing a plan to accomplish the mission.

Q3. What is Reconnaissance?

A: Gathering information about the enemy and terrain.

Q4. What is Security?

A: Protecting the patrol from enemy threats and surprise.

Q5. What is Control?

A: Maintaining command and coordination of the patrol.

Q6. What is Common Sense?

A: Using good judgment to make sound decisions.

Q7. What publication covers the principles of patrolling?

A: TC 3-21.76, Ranger Handbook.

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M240 , M249 , M4

M240 Machine Gun

10. Q: What is the sustained rate of fire for the M240?

A:

100 rounds per minute

6–9 round bursts

4–5 seconds between bursts

Barrel change every 10 minutes

11. Q: What is the rapid rate of fire for the M240?

A:

200 rounds per minute

10–12 round bursts

2–3 seconds between bursts

Barrel change every 2 minutes

12. Q: What is the cyclic rate of fire for the M240?

A:

650–950 rounds per minute

Barrel change after 1 minute of cyclic firing


M4 Carbine

14. Q: What are the 8 cycles of function for the M4?

A:

Feeding

Chambering

Locking

Firing

Unlocking

Extracting

Ejecting

Cocking


.Q: What is the description of the M4?

A: A lightweight, gas-operated, air-cooled, magazine-fed, shoulder-fired weapon.

2. Q: What caliber is the M4?

A: 5.56mm NATO.

3. Q: What is the maximum effective range of the M4 for a point target?

A: 500 meters.

4. Q: What is the maximum effective range of the M4 for an area target?

A: 600 meters.

5. Q: What is the maximum range of the M4?

A: 3,600 meters.

6. Q: What is the magazine capacity of the M4?

A: 30 rounds.

7. Q: What are the three selector positions on the M4A1?

A: Safe, Semi, and Auto.

8. Q: What is the difference between the M4 and M4A1?

A: The M4 has a three-round burst setting; the M4A1 has fully automatic fire.

9. Q: What is the sustained rate of fire for the M4?

A: 12–15 rounds per minute.

10. Q: What is the maximum effective semiautomatic rate of fire?

A: 45 rounds per minute.

11. Q: What is the cyclic rate of fire for the M4?

A: Approximately 700–970 rounds per minute.

12. Q: What is the muzzle velocity of the M4?

A: Approximately 2,970 feet per second.

13. Q: What is the barrel length of the M4?

A: 14.5 inches.

14. Q: What are the four primary rules of weapons safety?

A:

Treat every weapon as if it is loaded.

Never point a weapon at anything you do not intend to destroy.

Keep your finger off the trigger until ready to fire.

Identify your target and what is beyond it.


M249 Squad Automatic Weapon –

Q: What does SAW stand for?

A: Squad Automatic Weapon.

17. Q: What is the description of the M249?

A: A gas-operated, air-cooled, belt-fed or magazine-fed automatic weapon that fires from an open bolt.

18. Q: What caliber does the M249 fire?

A: 5.56mm NATO.

19. Q: What is the primary purpose of the M249?

A: To provide automatic fire support and suppression for the infantry squad.

20. Q: What is the maximum effective range of the M249 for a point target using a bipod?

A: 600 meters.

21. Q: What is the maximum effective range of the M249 for an area target using a bipod?

A: 800 meters.

22. Q: What is the maximum effective range of the M249 for a point target using a tripod?

A: 800 meters.

23. Q: What is the maximum effective range of the M249 for an area target using a tripod?

A: 1,000 meters.

24. Q: What is the maximum range of the M249?

A: 3,600 meters.

25. Q: What is the sustained rate of fire for the M249?

A: 100 rounds per minute.

26. Q: What is the rapid rate of fire for the M249?

A: 200 rounds per minute.

27. Q: What is the cyclic rate of fire for the M249?

A: Approximately 650–850 rounds per minute.

28. Q: What type of ammunition feeding system does the M249 use?

A: Primarily a disintegrating ammunition belt; it can also use compatible magazines.

29. Q: What is the standard ammunition belt capacity commonly used with the M249?

A: 200 rounds.

30. Q: What is the difference between the M249 and M240?

A: The M249 fires 5.56mm ammunition; the M240 fires 7.62mm ammunition.

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1. Infantry Knowledge – ATP 3-21.8

1. Q: What is the mission of the Infantry?

A: To close with and destroy the enemy through fire and maneuver, or repel enemy assaults by fire and close combat.

2. Q: What are the three types of combat operations?

A: Offensive, defensive, and stability operations.

3. Q: What are the four offensive tasks?

A:

Movement to contact

Attack

Exploitation

Pursuit

Q: What are the three defensive tasks?

A:

Area defense

Mobile defense

Retrograde

5. Q: What are the two types of retrograde operations besides withdrawal?

A: Delay and retirement.

6. Q: What is the purpose of reconnaissance?

A: To gather information about the enemy, terrain, and area of operations.

7. Q: What is the difference between cover and concealment?

A: Cover protects from enemy fire. Concealment hides you from observation.

8. Q: What are the three movement techniques?

A:

Traveling

Traveling overwatch

Bounding overwatch

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Troop Leading Procedures – ATP 3-21.8

Q: What does TLP stand for?

A: Troop Leading Procedures.

10. Q: What are the 8 steps of TLP?

A:

Receive the mission

Issue a warning order

Make a tentative plan

Initiate movement

Conduct reconnaissance

Complete the plan

Issue the operations order

Supervise and refine

11. Q: What is the 1/3–2/3 rule?

A: Leaders use one-third of the available time to plan and allow subordinates two-thirds to prepare.

12. Q: What does OPORD stand for?

A: Operations Order.

13. Q: What are the 5 paragraphs of an OPORD?

A:

Situation

Mission

Execution

Sustainment

Command and Signal

14. Q: What does WARNORD stand for?

A: Warning Order.

15. Q: What is the purpose of a WARNORD?

A: To give Soldiers advance notice of a mission so they can begin preparing.

16. Q: What does FRAGORD stand for?

A: Fragmentary Order.

17. Q: What is a FRAGORD?

A: An order that changes or updates an existing operation order.

18. Q: What does METT-TC (I) stand for?

A:

Mission

Enemy

Terrain and weather

Troops and support available

Time available

Civil considerations

Informational considerations

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Army Values & Soldier Knowledge

27. Q: What are the 7 Army Values?

A:

Loyalty

Duty

Respect

Selfless Service

Honor

Integrity

Personal Courage

28. Q: What does LDRSHIP stand for?

A: The seven Army Values.

29. Q: What are the four parts of the Warrior Ethos?

A:

I will always place the mission first.

I will never accept defeat.

I will never quit.

I will never leave a fallen comrade.

30. Q: What is the Army's motto?

A: This We'll Defend.


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5. Medical & Soldier Readiness

Q: What does TCCC stand for?

A: Tactical Combat Casualty Care.

32. Q: What are the three phases of TCCC?

A:

Care Under Fire

Tactical Field Care

Tactical Evacuation Care

33. Q: What does MARCH stand for in TCCC?

A:

Massive hemorrhage

Airway

Respiration

Circulation

Hypothermia/Head injury

34. Q: What does MEDEVAC stand for?

A: Medical Evacuation.

35. Q: What is the difference between MEDEVAC and CASEVAC?

A: MEDEVAC uses dedicated medical evacuation assets. CASEVAC uses nonmedical vehicles or aircraft.

6. Army Training & Accountability

36. Q: What does PCC stand for?

A: Pre-Combat Check.

37. Q: What does PCI stand for?

A: Pre-Combat Inspection.

38. Q: What is an AAR?

A: After Action Review — a discussion of what happened, why it happened, and how to improve.

39. Q: What are the four steps of the operations process?

A:

Plan

Prepare

Execute

Assess

40. Q: What is the purpose of risk management?

A: To identify hazards, reduce risks, and protect Soldiers while accomplishing the mission.