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Gram negative bacteria ends in:
“-ella”, “-monas”, or “-bacter”
Salmonella, Pseudomonas, Campylobacter
Gram positive bacteria ends in:
“-us” or “-ium”
Staphylococcus, Bacillus, Clostridium
True / False Neisseria ia a coccus but is Gram-Posistive baccili
True
Gram positive bacteria appears what color after being stained?
purple/blue
Gram negative bacteria turns what color when stained?
Pink/Red
An infestation of lice is known as:
Pediculosis
An infestation of fly larvae (maggots) is known as”
Myiasis
What rat flea is know for the plague (Yersinia pestis)?
Xenopsylla cheopis
A puppy comes into the clinic anemic and full of “dirt” on thir fur, what could be the cause of this condition?
fleas
Ixodes is also known as the deer tick and transmits what disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)
What tick genus/species is the primary vector for transmitting Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever and Tularemia?
Dermacentor andersoni and variabilis (american dog tick)
What tick transmits Ehrlichia spp.?
Rhipicephalus (Brown dog tick)
What is a capitulum?
the mouth parts of a tick
Ticks are the most common ectoparasite that transmits Tularemia which is also known as:
Rabbit fever
The causative agent of Tularemia is:
Francisella tularensis
What is used to treat Demodex?
Oral ivermectin or Lyme sulfur dips
A client comes in with a pet who ends up having scabies. The owner wants to know if this cant be transmitted to the family, you tell them:
Yes, but the infection is temporary
Otodectes cynotis is often treated with:
Topical ivermectin (Acarexx)
A dog comes in to the clinic shaking its head and scratchinging at its ears. The dog seems to have dark coffee ground debris in its ears. A slide is looked at under the microscope and mites appear. What could be the mite seen?
Otodectes cynotis
The feline chewinf louse is known as:
Felicola subrostratus
The chewing louse found in canines is known as:
Trichodectes canis
The sucking louse found in canines is known as:
Linognathus setosus
Lice are usually treated with:
Fipronil or Selamectin
What NSAID helps to relieve colic and internal organ pain in horses?
Banamine (Flunixin meglumine)
What is the generic name for Banamine?
Flunixin meglumine
What NSAID helps to relieve joint / muscle pain in horses?
Bute (Phenylbutazone)
Aminoglycosides, like Gentamicin or Tobramycin, target primarily what type of bacteria?
Gram negative
Glycopeptides, like Vancomycin, target what type of bacteria?
Gram positive
Macrolides, like Erythromycin, primarily tareget what type of bacteria?
Gram positive
Lincosamides, like Clindamycin, primarily target what type of bacteria?
Gram positive
Fluroquinolones, such as Enrofloxacin, primarily targets what type of bacteria?
both gram positive and gram negative
Beta Lactams, such as Cephalexin or Cefazolin, primarily targets what type of bacteria?
both gram negative and gram positive
What antibiotic classes are bacteriostatic?
Macrolides
Lincosamides
Chloramphenicol (can cause aplstic anemia)
Tetracyclines
What antibiotics are bacteriocidal?
Beta Lactams (penicillins / cephalosporin)
Aminoglycosides
Fluroquinolones
Trimethoprim/Sulfonamides (when in combination)
An animal that has been diagnosed with underlying cardiac insufficiency may need to be restricted on intake of Sodium. Why is that?
Water follows salt —> an animal that consumes more sodium would retain more water
Why can we not give Dextrose via SubQ fluids?
It causes sloughing of the skin and can increase bacterial infections at the injection site
You are asked to prepare a patient for a bone marrow aspirate. which sites are commonly used in dogs to obtain a sample? What about cats? Horses?
Humeral head
Iliac crest
in CATS femoral head
in HORSES the sternum
What is bog spavin?
Tarsocrural effusion
accumulation of synovial joint fluid in the tarsocrural joint
What is laminitis?
rotation of the coffin joint
What is a “Bowed Tendon” / Tendonitis?
inflammation of a tendon
What quantity of drug is found in 200mLs of a 10% solution
20 grams
Math:
10% = 100 mg/mL
1 gram = 1,000 mg
200 mL x 100mg / mL = 20,000 mg (was not an answer)
20,000 mg /1,000 mg = 20 grams
Valium is the brand name for:
Diazepam
Versed is the brand name for:
Midazolam
Flagyl is the brand name for":
Metronidazole
used to treat bacterial and parasitic infections / diarrhea
Reglan is the brand name for:
Metoclopramide
Used in cases of hypo-motility
Neutrophils deal with:
acute inflammation / bacterial infections
Lymphocytes deal with:
identifying and destroying foreign invaders(viruses, bacteria, and toxins) + eliminating abnormal or cancerous cells within the body.
Eosinophils deal with:
fight parasitic infections and regulate allergic and inflammatory responses
Basophils deal with:
triggering allergic reactions, fighting parasitic infections, and managing inflammation
Monocytes deal with:
fighting off infections, removing dead or damaged tissue, and regulating the immune response
What is the order of erythropoiesis? (most immature to RBC)
Rubriblast —> Prorubricyte → Basophilic rubricyte → Polychromatophilic rubricyte → Metarubricyte → Reticulocyte → Erythrocyte
What is the purpose of the condenser on the microscope?
to focus light on the object being viewed
What is the average toxic dose of theobromine in dogs?
60 - 100 mg/kg
Coccidiodes immits is known as what disease that is commonly seen in the southwestern US? What is it cause by?
Valley fever; Fungus
What are the symptoms of valley fever (Coccidioides immits)?
lameness
coughing
lethargy
loss of appetite
Define hypoxia.
Inadequate tissue oxygenation
During calving the rupture of the umbilical cord before birth causes hypoxia in the calf. Why?
Umbilical cord supplies oxygen from mother’s blood to calf, therefore if it ruptures the calf will not recieve oxygen and it becomes an emergency
Define hyperemia.
Increase of blood flow to different tissues in the body
What is sepsis caused by?
caused by infection
Canine pervovirus causes which laboratory changes?
Neutropenia
Parvoviral enteritis causes vomiting + diarrhea
leads to dehydration and often sepsis / fever - overwhelming infection leads to low neutrophil count
Neutropenia is a decrease or increase in neutrophils?
decrease of neutrophils
Neutrophilia is an increase or decrease of neutrophils?
increase of neutrophils
What is Pseudorabies?
a reportable swine disease caused by porcine herpes virus 1.
How is pseudorabies transmitied?
shed through oral / nasal secretions of swine and spread throuhg oral/nasal contact or by fomites
What are symptoms of pseudorabies in swine?
abortion
nasal discharge / sneezing
seizures
depression
circling
ptyalism (increase salivation)
in cattle: “mad itch” → seizures → death
What is the most common swine GI parasite?
Ascaris suum ( pig nematode)
How does Ascaris suum travel through hepato-larval migration?
agg with L2 is ingested → larvae undergo hepatic migration → molt to L3 → migrate to lungs where coughed up and swallowed→ molt 2 more times and become adult roundworms in intestines
What is the swine kidney worm called?
Stephanurus dentatus
Erysipelothrix is the bacteria that causes what disease in pigs?
diamond skin disease
What is the swine whipworm called that lives in the cecum?
Trichuris suis
Which hormone causes the vaginal cells of the female dog to proliferate and form cornified epithelium?
Estrogen
What part of the brain controls heartbeat, respiration, and blood pressure?
Brain stem
The brain stem is made up of what three components?
Midbrain, Pons, and Medulla
A dog comes into the clinic and is in a “saw horse” stance on the gurney. What could be the cause?
tetanus
An injury to what region of the brain is most likely to result in respiratory arrest?
Brain stem
pons contains important respiratory centers in the brain stem.
The cerebellum is responsible for:
coordination and balance
The hypothalamus, which is found in the diencephalon, is involved in helping the body regulate what?
endocrine functions in the body
Tularemia can be transmitted to humans by:
tick bites
deerflies
If a horse receives a cut on the leg from barbed wire and is not vaccinated, what is the protocol for preventing tetanus?
Tetanus antitoxin within 24 hrs
provides temporary immunity for about 2 weeks
If a horse has tetnus, what is the protocol for vaccinating?
give the tetanus toxoid and antitoxin
What hormone stimulates uterine contraction?
Oxytocin
What hormone stimulates lactation?
prolactin
What hormone stimulates ovulation?
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
What disorder often occurs around 3 weeks after whelping due to losing calcium in the milk and the inability of the body to keep up with demand? What would you most likely see on the electrolyte panel?
Eclampsia; “milk fever”
Hypocalcemia
What is hypocalcemia in a dog who has Eclampsia treated with?
Calcium gluconate IV
What will cause a false positive fecal occult blood test?
meat based diet
test should be administered on a meat free diet (cottage cheese and rice) for 3 days
Struvite crystals are one of the most common observed in urine. What are the chemical constituents of struvite?
Magnesium, Ammonium, and Phosphate
A young male cat with symptoms of FLUTD and struvite cystalluria should recieve what diet?
Acidifying diet
Struvite crystals form when pH of urine is high or alkaline, therefore an acidifying diet would help decrease the pH of the urine and formation of crystals
A horse with flared nostrils and a heave line from the tuber coxae towards the elbow with forced expiration likely has which of the following conditions?
Obstructive airway disease
COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) causes weight los, lack of energy, and exercise intolerance
The autonomic nervous system refers to what?
sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
Fight / flight and rest / digest
If a chinchilla has a dust bath every day and the owner is leaving the dust bath in the enclosure, what can it potentially cause?
conjunctivitis
Pre-renal azotemia is most commonly caused by what?
Dehydration
when a patient is dehydrated renal values may be elevated
Azotemia is the term for:
elevated BUN + creatinine (renal values)
Primary renal azotemia is normally caused by what?
Renal failure (acute or chronic)
Post-renal azotemia is most commonly caused by what?
obstruction in the bladder or urethra
Coprophagy is the medical term for:
eating feces
Dysphagia is the medical term for:
difficulty swallowing
Aerophagia is the medical term for:
swallowing of air
You run a CBC on a dog that is heartworm positive. Which blood cell i commonly elevated in dogs with heartworm disease or other parasitic infections?
Eosinophils
What are some reasons there could be an elevation of Eosinophils on labwork?
Allergies
Chronic dermatitis
Feline Asthma
Heart worms
Parasitic infections