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GHRH (+), Somatostatin (-), TRH (+), CRH (+), GnRH (+), Dopamine (-)
Which hypothalamic hormones stimulate or inhibit anterior pituitary hormones?
Insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1)
What is the primary target mediator produced by the liver in response to Growth Hormone?
Thyroxine (T4) and Triiodothyronine (T3)
What primary target gland hormones are secreted by the thyroid in response to TSH?
Cortisol
What primary steroid hormone is secreted by the adrenal cortex in response to ACTH?
Estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone
What sex steroids are secreted by the gonads in response to FSH and LH?
Dopamine
Which hypothalamic neurotransmitter tonically inhibits prolactin secretion from the anterior pituitary?
Hypothalamus
Where are the posterior pituitary hormones oxytocin and vasopressin synthesized?
Uterine contraction and milk letdown
What are the primary physiological roles of oxytocin?
Renal tubule water reabsorption and osmotic pressure regulation
What is the primary physiological role of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)?
Primary Endocrine Disorder
What category of endocrine disorder involves pathology within the target organ itself, with the pituitary and hypothalamus responding appropriately?
Secondary Endocrine Disorder
What category of endocrine disorder stems from pathology in the pituitary gland affecting the target organ?
Suppression Tests
What type of confirmatory diagnostic test is indicated when a patient is suspected of having hormone excess?
Stimulation Tests
What type of confirmatory diagnostic test is indicated when a patient is suspected of having hormone deficiency?
Hormonal excess, hormonal deficiency, and mass effect
What three primary mechanisms cause clinical manifestations in patients with hypothalamic-pituitary disorders?
Hypogonadism, hypothyroidism, growth failure, hypoadrenalism, and hyperprolactinemia
What endocrine deficits result from direct pituitary compression by a sellar mass?
Stalk compression blocking hypothalamic dopamine from reaching the anterior pituitary
By what mechanism does a sellar mass cause hyperprolactinemia without a prolactinoma?
Bitemporal hemianopia
What classic visual field defect is caused by a sellar mass expanding superiorly to compress the optic chiasm?
Loss of red perception
What early color vision deficit can indicate optic chiasm compression by a pituitary lesion?
Temperature dysregulation, appetite/thirst disorders, obesity, AVP deficiency, sleep, and behavioral disorders
What clinical features occur when a sellar mass extends to impact the hypothalamus?
Ophthalmoplegia, ptosis, diplopia, and facial numbness
What neuro-ophthalmologic signs result from lateral extension of a sellar mass into the cavernous sinus?
Cranial Nerves III, IV, V1, V2, and VI
Which cranial nerves traverse the cavernous sinus and can be compromised by an expanding sellar lesion?
Personality disorder and anosmia
What clinical manifestations occur if a sellar mass extends anteriorly to involve the frontal lobe and olfactory bulb?
Headache, hydrocephalus, psychosis, dementia, and laughing seizures
What brain complications can arise from massive suprasellar mass extension?
Circadian rhythm
What physiological variance requires timing hormone blood draws at specific hours (e.g. morning vs. midnight)?
Serum IGF-1
What is the initial screening blood test of choice for suspected acromegaly?
Failure of GH to suppress to < 1.0 mcg/L (or < 0.4 mcg/L) after an oral 75g glucose load
What result on an Oral Glucose Tolerance Test confirms the diagnosis of acromegaly?
Basal fasting morning serum prolactin level
What initial screening test is ordered for a suspected prolactinoma?
24-hour urine free cortisol, 1-mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test, and late-night salivary cortisol
What three initial screening tests evaluate suspected Cushing's disease?
Cortisol suppresses to < 1.8 mcg/dL (or < 5 mcg/dL depending on assay)
What is the normal expected cortisol response to a 1-mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test?
CRH Stimulation Test
Which dynamic biochemical test is primarily used to differentiate pituitary Cushing's disease from ectopic ACTH secretion?
Baseline FSH, LH, free alpha subunit, estrogen/testosterone, and TRH stimulation test
What diagnostic panel evaluates a suspected gonadotropin-secreting adenoma?
Inappropriately normal or elevated TSH in the setting of elevated free T4 and free T3
What unique biochemical pattern identifies a TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma?
Pituitary MRI with dedicated protocol
What imaging modality is the gold standard for searching for secondary hypothalamic-pituitary pathologies?
Medical/hormonal therapy, transsphenoidal surgery, and radiation therapy
What are the three main therapeutic modalities for hypothalamic-pituitary gland disorders?
Prolactin
Which anterior pituitary hormone is primarily responsible for lactation and parturition, but is not indispensable for human survival?
Dopamine
Which endogenous hypothalamic factor exerts continuous tonic inhibitory control over lactotroph prolactin secretion?
Serum prolactin concentration > 200 mcg/L
What threshold serum prolactin level is considered diagnostic of a prolactinoma?
Chronic renal failure, hypothyroidism, hypothalamic tumors/lesions, and medications
What conditions cause mild to moderate hyperprolactinemia (30 to 100 mcg/L) without a prolactinoma?
Antipsychotics (e.g., risperidone), antidepressants, neuroleptics, and methyldopa
Which medication classes commonly cause drug-induced hyperprolactinemia?
Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and infertility
What classic symptom triad characterizes hyperprolactinemia in premenopausal females?
Impotence, decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, low sperm count, galactorrhea, and infertility
What clinical features characterize hyperprolactinemia in males?
Osteoporosis / decreased bone mineral density
What long-term bone complication occurs in both males and females with chronic hyperprolactinemia due to sex hormone suppression?
Pregnancy and breastfeeding / lactation
What natural physiological states must always be ruled out when evaluating hyperprolactinemia?
Fasting morning serum prolactin level < 20 mcg/L
What is the normal baseline reference level for serum prolactin in healthy adults?
Hook effect (false low reading due to assay saturation requiring sample dilution)
What laboratory artifact can cause a deceptively low prolactin reading in a patient with a massive macroprolactinoma?
Primary hypothyroidism
Which thyroid disorder must be ruled out by checking TSH and Free T4 in a patient with hyperprolactinemia?
Pituitary MRI
What is the imaging modality of choice for confirming a prolactinoma?
Prolactinoma
Which type of functional pituitary adenoma is unique because medical therapy is recommended as the first-line treatment instead of surgery?
Dopamine agonists
What class of medications represents the primary medical treatment for hyperprolactinemia and prolactinomas?
Bromocriptine and Cabergoline
What are the two most commonly prescribed dopamine agonist medications?
Cardiac valvular regurgitation / valve defects
What major cardiovascular adverse effect requires baseline 2D echocardiography monitoring in patients taking high-dose Cabergoline (>3 mg/day)?
Constipation, nasal stiffness, dry mouth, nightmares, insomnia, vertigo, nausea, and vomiting
What are common side effects associated with dopamine agonist therapy?
Bromocriptine
Which dopamine agonist is a short-acting ergot alkaloid preferred when pregnancy is desired?
Cabergoline
Which long-acting ergoline derivative is preferred overall for prolactinoma treatment due to higher efficacy and better tolerability?
0.5 to 1.0 mg twice weekly
What is the standard dosing frequency for Cabergoline in hyperprolactinemia?
Dopamine agonist resistance, medication intolerance, treatment failure, or macroprolactinoma with planned pregnancy
What are the specific indications for transsphenoidal surgery in prolactinoma?
Aggressive tumors unresponsive to dopamine agonists and poor surgical candidates
When is radiotherapy indicated for prolactinoma management?
Somatotrope pituitary adenoma
What is the underlying etiology in over 95-98% of patients presenting with acromegaly?
Chest or abdominal carcinoid tumors
What is the most common cause of ectopic GHRH-mediated acromegaly?
Insidious onset with symptoms present for at least 10 years before clinical diagnosis
What is the typical clinical timeline for the development of acromegaly symptoms?
Acral bony overgrowth, frontal bossing, enlarged hands/feet, prognathism, widened lower incisor spacing, and coarse facial features
What characteristic physical skeletal changes occur in adult acromegaly?
Pituitary Gigantism
What clinical entity develops when growth hormone hypersecretion begins during childhood before epiphyseal long bone closure?
Hyperhidrosis, deep hollow voice, oily skin, arthropathy, kyphosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, and generalized visceromegaly
What soft tissue and systemic manifestations accompany skeletal overgrowth in acromegaly?
Cardiovascular system
Which organ system complication is the primary cause of morbidity and premature mortality in acromegaly?
Arrhythmias, cardiomyopathy, left ventricular hypertrophy, and decreased diastolic function
What specific cardiac complications occur in patients with acromegaly?
Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
What metabolic disorder develops in up to 25% of acromegaly patients because GH counteracts insulin action?
Colonic polyps and dolichomegacolon
What gastrointestinal lesions require screening colonoscopy in patients with acromegaly?
Three-fold (3x) increased mortality
By how much is overall mortality increased in untreated acromegaly?
Age-matched serum IGF-1 concentration
What is the initial screening blood test of choice for acromegaly?
Failure of serum GH to suppress to < 0.4 mcg/L (or < 1 mcg/L) within 1-2 hours of a 75g oral glucose load
What constitutes a positive confirmatory Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) for acromegaly?
Pituitary MRI
What imaging study is performed immediately following a positive biochemical confirmation of acromegaly?
Chest and abdominal CT scan to look for carcinoid tumors, and serum GHRH measurement
What diagnostic evaluations should be performed if a patient has confirmed acromegaly but a normal pituitary MRI?
Normalization of serum IGF-1 levels
What is the primary biochemical goal and marker of disease control throughout the management of acromegaly?
Transsphenoidal surgical resection
What is the recommended first-line treatment for all functional GH-secreting pituitary adenomas?
Within 3 to 4 days post-operatively
How quickly do serum IGF-1 levels normalize following successful complete transsphenoidal resection of a GH adenoma?
Octreotide acetate, Lanreotide, and Pasireotide
Which Somatostatin Receptor Ligands (SRLs) are used as adjuvant medical therapy for acromegaly?
Hyperglycemia (due to potent inhibition of pancreatic insulin secretion via SST5 receptors)
What prominent metabolic side effect is uniquely associated with Pasireotide LAR?
Pegvisomant
Which drug functions as a GH receptor antagonist by blocking peripheral GH binding to its receptor?
Serum GH levels remain elevated while IGF-1 levels fall
What happens to serum GH versus IGF-1 levels during Pegvisomant therapy?
Serial pituitary MRI scans
How must tumor size be monitored in an acromegaly patient managed with Pegvisomant?
Hypothalamic-pituitary damage leading to progressive hypopituitarism
What major long-term adverse effect can result from stereotactic radiation therapy for acromegaly?
ACTH-producing pituitary corticotrope adenoma (Cushing's Disease)
What is the most common cause of endogenous Cushing's syndrome?
Iatrogenic / exogenous glucocorticoid (steroid) administration
What is the most common cause overall of Cushingoid physical features?
Responds to high-dose glucocorticoid suppression
How does a pituitary ACTH-secreting adenoma respond to high-dose glucocorticoid feedback compared to ectopic tumors?
Progressive central obesity and weight gain
What is the most frequent clinical sign observed in patients with Cushing's syndrome?
Thin skin, moon facies, facial plethora, purple striae, hirsutism, hypertension, and proximal muscle weakness
What physical features result from chronic tissue exposure to excess cortisol?
24-hour urine free cortisol (UFC), 1-mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test, and late-night salivary cortisol
What three screening tests demonstrate pathological hypercortisolism?
At least 2 positive test results
How many abnormal test results are required for 24-hour UFC or late-night salivary cortisol to confirm hypercortisolism?
1 positive test result
How many abnormal test results are required for the 1-mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test to suggest hypercortisolism?
Inferior Petrosal Sinus Sampling (IPSS) / Inferior Petrosal Venous Sampling
What is the gold standard diagnostic procedure to differentiate a pituitary ACTH source from an ectopic ACTH source?
Central to peripheral ACTH ratio > 2 at baseline, or > 3 after CRH stimulation
What central-to-peripheral ACTH gradient on IPSS confirms Cushing's Disease?
Central to peripheral ACTH ratio < 2 at baseline, or < 3 after CRH stimulation
What central-to-peripheral ACTH gradient on IPSS indicates an ectopic ACTH-secreting tumor?
Pituitary corticotrope adenomas are more common in females with slow onset, whereas ectopic ACTH tumors are more common in males with rapid onset
How do Cushing's disease and ectopic ACTH syndrome differ regarding sex distribution and clinical onset?
Severe hypokalemia (<3.3 mmol/L or 75% of cases) and hyperpigmentation
What electrolyte and dermatologic features are prominently associated with ectopic ACTH secretion compared to Cushing's disease?
Small cell lung cancer and bronchial carcinoid tumors
What are the most common extrapituitary malignancies causing ectopic ACTH syndrome?
Transsphenoidal surgical resection of the pituitary adenoma
What is the first-line treatment of choice for Cushing's disease?
Transient central adrenal insufficiency requiring temporary hydrocortisone replacement
What endocrine deficiency is expected immediately following successful surgical cure of Cushing's disease?
Mifepristone
Which glucocorticoid receptor antagonist blocks the peripheral actions of cortisol and improves hyperglycemia in Cushing's syndrome?
Metyrapone
Which oral adrenal steroidogenesis inhibitor works by blocking 11-beta hydroxylase activity?
Mitotane
Which adrenolytic agent destroys adrenocortical cells and is used for adrenal carcinoma and persistent Cushing's?